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CM5.1-22 | Nutrition in Community Health — Practice Quiz

Practice 14 questions · Untimed · Unlimited attempts

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Q1 CM5.1 1 pt

According to ICMR-NIN 2020 guidelines, the Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) for protein in a sedentary adult Indian man (65 kg) is:

A 0.83 g/kg/day (≈ 54 g/day)
B 1.2 g/kg/day (≈ 78 g/day)
C 0.6 g/kg/day (≈ 39 g/day)
D 1.5 g/kg/day (≈ 98 g/day)

Correct. ICMR-NIN 2020 sets the protein RDA at 0.83 g/kg/day for all adults regardless of dietary pattern, replacing the older 1.0 g/kg figure.

ICMR-NIN 2020 protein RDA = 0.83 g/kg/day for sedentary adults of both sexes. Lactating mothers have an additive allowance of +17 g/day (months 0-6). Iron RDA for adult women is 29 mg/day; for men 19 mg/day.

Incorrect. The ICMR-NIN 2020 value is 0.83 g/kg/day — lower than older guidelines (1.0 g/kg) because the 2020 update used newer nitrogen balance studies. Option B (1.2 g/kg) is a WHO/FAO safe level for athletes, not the Indian population RDA.

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Q2 CM5.3 1 pt

A 2-year-old child from a low-income family is brought to a rural health centre. On examination he has bilateral pitting pedal oedema, 'flaky paint' skin rash over the trunk, and a moon face, but his weight-for-height Z-score is -1.8. Which diagnosis best fits, and what is the defining feature that distinguishes it from the other classical PEM syndrome?

A Kwashiorkor — bilateral pitting oedema is the defining feature; marasmus shows severe wasting without oedema
B Marasmus — the 'flaky paint' rash is pathognomonic of marasmus
C Kwashiorkor — the moon face is the defining feature; marasmus is distinguished by anaemia
D Marasmic-kwashiorkor — only this mixed form presents with oedema, making wasting irrelevant

Correct. Kwashiorkor is defined by bilateral pitting oedema in a child, regardless of the weight-for-height Z-score. Marasmus is severe wasting (weight-for-height < -3 SD or MUAC < 11.5 cm) without oedema.

PEM types: Kwashiorkor = oedema (bilateral pitting) ± dermatosis ± hair changes ± moon face. Marasmus = severe wasting (weight < 60% expected), no oedema, 'old man' appearance. Marasmic-kwashiorkor = oedema + wasting. SAM MUAC cut-off: <11.5 cm. WHZ < -3 SD = SAM.

Incorrect. The defining feature of kwashiorkor is bilateral pitting oedema. The 'flaky paint' (crazy-paving dermatosis) rash is also seen in kwashiorkor, not marasmus. Marasmus shows extreme wasting with a 'baggy pants' appearance.

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Q3 CM5.6 1 pt

The Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) Scheme provides services to which combination of beneficiaries?

A Children 0-6 years + pregnant and lactating mothers
B Children 6-14 years + adolescent girls only
C Children 0-5 years + all women of reproductive age
D Children 0-3 years + school-age children 6-12 years

Correct. ICDS targets children 0-6 years (the critical window) and pregnant + lactating mothers. Services include supplementary nutrition, immunisation, health check-up, referral, pre-school education, and nutrition and health education.

ICDS (1975) key services (6): Supplementary Nutrition, Immunisation, Health Check-up, Referral, Pre-school Education, Nutrition & Health Education. Poshan Abhiyan (2018) / PM-POSHAN now integrates ICDS with WIFS, MAA, PMMVY. Anganwadi Worker delivers services at Anganwadi Centre.

Incorrect. ICDS serves children 0-6 years AND pregnant + lactating mothers — targeting the 1000-day window from conception to age 2. Adolescent girls (11-14 years, out-of-school) were added under the Kishori Shakti Yojana, but the core ICDS beneficiary definition is 0-6 years + PLMs.

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Q4 CM5.2 1 pt

CLINICAL SCENARIO

During a rural field visit, a medical student is asked to assess the nutritional status of Anita, a 16-year-old girl from a Scheduled Tribe community. Her weight is 42 kg, height is 158 cm. Mid-upper arm circumference (MUAC) is 22 cm. She has no clinical signs of deficiency. Her 24-hour dietary recall shows: 3 small bowls of rice (≈ 150 g dry weight), 1 small bowl of dal (≈ 30 g dry), leafy vegetables twice per week, no animal products.

Answer the following questions based on the scenario above.

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Q5 CM5.2 1 pt

What is Anita's BMI and how should it be classified using Indian adolescent references?

A BMI 16.8 kg/m² — underweight for Indian adolescents
B BMI 18.5 kg/m² — normal weight by WHO universal standards
C BMI 20.1 kg/m² — normal weight for Indian adolescents
D BMI 14.2 kg/m² — severe acute malnutrition (SAM)

Correct. BMI = 42 / (1.58)² = 42 / 2.4964 ≈ 16.8 kg/m². For Indian adolescent girls aged 16 years, the WHO 2007 BMI-for-age reference classifies BMI < 18.5 as underweight (thinness), and < 16 as severe thinness. At 16.8, Anita is moderately thin (Grade 2 thinness by WHO).

Incorrect. BMI = weight (kg) ÷ height² (m²) = 42 ÷ 2.4964 ≈ 16.8. This is below the 18.5 cut-off and indicates thinness. Option B (18.5) and C (20.1) are arithmetically wrong. Option D (14.2) is incorrect arithmetic.

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Q6 CM5.2 1 pt

Given Anita's dietary pattern (no animal products, rice-dominant, leafy vegetables only twice weekly), which micronutrient deficiency is she at highest risk of?

A Iron deficiency — non-haem iron diet + menstrual losses + high phytate inhibition
B Vitamin D deficiency — no dietary source of vitamin D in her diet
C Iodine deficiency — tribal populations in India uniformly have iodine deficiency
D Zinc deficiency — rice and dal together provide no absorbable zinc

Correct. Adolescent girls face triple iron risk: vegetarian diet provides only non-haem iron (baseline absorption 5-10%), phytate in cereals and legumes chelates iron, and menstrual blood loss adds an ongoing deficit. NFHS-5 shows anaemia prevalence of 59.1% in women 15-19 years.

Incorrect. While Vitamin D, iodine, and zinc deficiencies are all possible, iron is the priority. Iodine deficiency risk depends on salt iodisation and is not uniform in all tribal areas. Zinc is present in dal (legumes), though absorption is reduced by phytate. Vitamin D is primarily synthesised cutaneously — dietary intake is a secondary concern.

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Q7 CM5.5 1 pt

Which of the following are valid components of nutritional surveillance in India? a. NFHS (National Family Health Survey) — conducted every 5-7 years, covers anthropometry and dietary practices b. NNMB (National Nutrition Monitoring Bureau) — continuous surveillance of rural populations c. CNNS (Comprehensive National Nutrition Survey) — provides micronutrient data in children 0-19 years d. HMIS (Health Management Information System) — tracks routine ANC weight gain data e. POSHAN Tracker — collects Anganwadi-level anthropometry monthly

A a, b and c only
B a, c and e only
C All of the above (a-e)
D b, d and e only

Correct. All five are valid surveillance tools: NFHS (periodic), NNMB (continuous rural), CNNS (comprehensive micronutrient), HMIS (routine health facility data), and POSHAN Tracker (real-time Anganwadi data). Together they form India's multi-level nutritional surveillance architecture.

Nutritional surveillance = continuous monitoring to guide programme decisions (FAO/WHO definition). India's surveillance triangle: Periodic surveys (NFHS, CNNS) for population estimates + Continuous systems (NNMB, HMIS) for trends + Real-time administrative data (POSHAN Tracker). Each layer has different timeliness, coverage, and resolution.

Incorrect. All five components are valid surveillance tools in India. HMIS includes maternal weight tracking at ANC. POSHAN Tracker replaced the older CAS (Common Application Software) for Anganwadi data.

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Q8 CM5.8 1 pt

Under the National Iodine Deficiency Disorders Control Programme (NIDDCP), what is the mandatory level of iodine fortification in edible salt at the production level (before iodine losses during storage and cooking)?

A ≥ 30 ppm (parts per million) at production
B ≥ 15 ppm at production
C ≥ 100 ppm at production
D ≥ 50 ppm at production

Correct. FSSAI / NIDDCP mandates ≥30 ppm iodine at the production stage. Given losses during packaging, storage, and cooking (up to 50%), this ensures ≥15 ppm reaches the consumer — sufficient to meet the 150 µg/day iodine RDA for adults (assuming 10 g salt intake and 15 ppm).

NIDDCP: Universal Salt Iodisation mandates 30 ppm at production, 15 ppm at consumer level. Non-iodised salt sale is banned under PFA/FSSAI. Iodine RDA: 150 µg/day adults, 220 µg/day pregnancy, 290 µg/day lactation. IDD spectrum: cretinism (congenital), goitre, subclinical hypothyroidism. 75 million Indians at risk (iodine-deficient areas).

Incorrect. The production-level standard is 30 ppm (not 15). At 15 ppm consumer-level, the goal is met assuming 10 g salt/day. FSSAI 2021 further mandated ≥15 ppm at retail level. The two key figures: 30 ppm (production) and 15 ppm (consumer/retail).

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Q9 CM5.7 1 pt

A Primary Health Centre Medical Officer is planning a food safety counselling session for a community that has experienced an outbreak of food-borne gastroenteritis. Which of the following correctly represents the WHO 5 Keys to Safer Food?

A Keep clean, Separate raw and cooked, Cook thoroughly, Keep food at safe temperatures, Use safe water and raw materials
B Boil water, Refrigerate leftovers, Avoid street food, Wash vegetables, Cook at 70°C
C Keep clean, Boil all water, Use packaged food, Refrigerate immediately, Cook thoroughly
D Separate raw meat, Use iodised salt, Boil water, Refrigerate within 2 hours, Wash hands with soap

Correct. The WHO 5 Keys are: (1) Keep clean, (2) Separate raw and cooked, (3) Cook thoroughly (≥70°C core temperature), (4) Keep food at safe temperatures (<5°C or >60°C), (5) Use safe water and raw materials.

WHO 5 Keys to Safer Food: (1) Clean — handwashing, surface/utensil cleaning; (2) Separate — prevent cross-contamination; (3) Cook — 70°C kills most pathogens; (4) Safe temperatures — danger zone 5-60°C; (5) Safe water & raw materials. FSSAI's food safety legislation: FSS Act 2006, Hygiene and Sanitation Regulations 2011.

Incorrect. The exact WHO 5 Keys are: Keep clean / Separate raw and cooked / Cook thoroughly / Keep at safe temperatures / Use safe water and raw materials. Options B, C, and D mix valid food safety advice with non-standard or incomplete formulations.

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Q10 CM5.3 1 pt

Assertion (A): Vitamin A supplementation is given every 6 months to children aged 9 months to 5 years as part of India's National Vitamin A Prophylaxis Programme. Reason (R): Vitamin A deficiency impairs epithelial integrity and innate immunity, increasing case-fatality rates from measles, diarrhoea, and pneumonia.

A Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
B Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
C A is true but R is false
D A is false but R is true
E Both A and R are false

Correct. Both assertion and reason are true. The Vitamin A Prophylaxis Programme (6-monthly megadose supplementation from 9 months to 5 years) directly implements the evidence that Vitamin A deficiency increases infection-related mortality — R explains why the programme exists and why the dosing frequency is chosen.

VAD: Bitot's spots (earliest specific sign), xerophthalmia (night blindness → corneal xerosis → keratomalacia → blindness). Mega-dose schedule: 9 months (100,000 IU) at measles vaccine contact; 18 months-5 years (200,000 IU) every 6 months. Vitamin A also reduces measles CFR by 50% when given therapeutically. NFHS-5: only 27% of children 6-23 months received Vitamin A in last 6 months.

Incorrect. The assertion is true (6-monthly megadose, 9 months-5 years). The reason is true (VAD impairs immunity, increases infection CFR). And R is the correct explanation of A — it is because VAD kills through infection amplification that the programme prioritises this age group and this frequency.

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Q11 CM5.16 1 pt

A mother asks: 'Can I give my 4-month-old baby boiled water on hot days, since I am exclusively breastfeeding?' What is the correct evidence-based response?

A No — exclusive breastfeeding means breast milk ONLY (no water, other liquids, or solid food) for the first 6 months; breast milk itself is 87% water and is sufficient even in hot weather
B Yes — water is allowed during exclusive breastfeeding as it is not a food
C Yes — if the temperature exceeds 35°C, giving 30-60 mL cooled boiled water per feed is recommended
D No — however, you may give oral rehydration solution (ORS) if the baby appears dehydrated

Correct. WHO defines exclusive breastfeeding (EBF) as breast milk ONLY — no water, other liquids, juice, honey, or solid foods — for the first 6 months. Breast milk is 87% water and fully meets hydration needs even in hot climates. Giving water reduces demand and supply, risks infection, and dilutes breast milk sodium.

EBF definition: breast milk only, including expressed milk, no other food or drink except prescribed drops/syrups (vitamins, minerals, medicines). India's EBF rate: 63.7% (NFHS-5, 6 months). Benefits: reduces diarrhoea, ARI, sudden infant death. WHO recommends EBF 0-6 months, then continued BF with complementary foods to 2 years.

Incorrect. EBF is strict — even water is excluded. The WHO definition allows only prescribed drops or syrups for medical reasons. Water supplementation reduces breastfeeding frequency, reduces demand, and decreases milk supply via feedback inhibitor of lactation (FIL). Options B and C are not evidence-based.

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Q12 CM5.13 1 pt

At what age should complementary feeding begin, and what should be the consistency of food offered to a 6-7 month old infant?

A 6 months; start with thick purées and mashed foods that the baby can eat without choking
B 4 months; semi-solid consistency from the start to optimise gut microbiome maturation
C 6 months; start with thin watery gruel to ease the digestive transition
D 9 months; the infant's gut is not mature enough for non-milk foods before this age

Correct. WHO and IYCF guidelines: start complementary feeding at exactly 6 months (not before 4, not delayed past 6-7 months). The first foods should be thick purées/mash — not thin watery gruel — because thin gruel has low energy density and cannot meet the growing infant's caloric gap.

IYCF: Complementary feeding (CF) from 6 months. Consistency progression: 6-8 months (purées, mash, thick gruel); 9-11 months (finely chopped, finger foods); 12+ months (family foods). Frequency: 6-8 months 2-3×/day; 9-11 months 3-4×/day; 12-24 months 3-4×/day + 1-2 snacks. Breast milk continues alongside CF until 2 years.

Incorrect. Complementary feeding starts at 6 months (not 4, not 9). The WHO recommendation is clear: 4 months is too early (gut not ready, no teeth), 9 months is too late (iron gap, growth faltering risk). Thin watery gruel (option C) is insufficient — it fills the stomach without meeting caloric needs.

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Q13 CM5.10 1 pt

A 52-year-old male farmer presents to the PHC with blood pressure of 148/94 mmHg on two readings. He eats rice, dal, and vegetable curry three times daily, uses a salt shaker at the table, and drinks 3 cups of heavily sweetened tea per day. Which single dietary modification has the strongest evidence base for reducing systolic blood pressure in this patient?

A Reduce sodium intake to <5 g of salt/day and eliminate the table salt shaker
B Switch from white rice to red rice to increase fibre intake
C Add one banana per day for potassium supplementation
D Replace sweetened tea with black coffee to reduce sugar intake

Correct. Sodium reduction is the single most evidence-supported dietary intervention for hypertension. WHO recommends <5 g/day of salt (<2 g Na). The DASH diet evidence shows a 5-6 mmHg systolic reduction from sodium restriction alone. Eliminating the table salt shaker is practical and immediate.

Hypertension dietary priorities: (1) Sodium <5 g/day salt (WHO), (2) DASH diet (fruits, vegetables, low-fat dairy, whole grains, reduced saturated fat), (3) Alcohol reduction (if applicable), (4) Weight loss (if overweight). Potassium (bananas, tomatoes, leafy greens) reduces BP but evidence for isolated potassium supplementation is weaker than sodium restriction.

Incorrect. While fibre, potassium, and sugar reduction are all beneficial, sodium reduction has the strongest and most consistent evidence base for systolic blood pressure reduction. The DASH trial (1997) and subsequent meta-analyses confirm sodium restriction as the first dietary intervention. The other options, though beneficial, have smaller or less consistent effect sizes.

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Q14 CM5.19 1 pt

A patient shows you a packet of biscuits. The nutrition label reads: 'Trans Fat: 0 g per serving (30 g).' The ingredient list includes 'partially hydrogenated vegetable oil.' What is the correct interpretation?

A The product may still contain up to 0.49 g of trans fat per serving; FSSAI allows 0 g labelling when trans fat is <0.5 g/serving, and daily consumption of multiple servings could be significant
B The product is completely free of trans fat; '0 g' is a verified analytical result with no rounding
C The presence of partially hydrogenated oil is irrelevant since trans fat content is declared as zero
D FSSAI prohibits partially hydrogenated oils, so this product cannot legally be sold in India

Correct. FSSAI regulations allow '0 g trans fat' labelling when trans fat is <0.5 g per serving — so 0.49 g per serving is legally labelled as zero. A person eating 3-4 servings could consume nearly 2 g of trans fat, approaching the WHO maximum of <1% of total energy (≈ 2.2 g/day for a 2000 kcal diet). Partially hydrogenated oil is a red flag.

Trans fat red flags on food labels: 'partially hydrogenated oil' in ingredients even when TFA declared 0 g. FSSAI standard: ≤5% of total fat as TFA (food service oils), ≤2% (packaged foods) from 2021. WHO target: <1% of total energy (<2.2 g/day). Cardiovascular risk: TFA raises LDL AND lowers HDL simultaneously.

Incorrect. '0 g trans fat' on a food label does NOT guarantee zero trans fat. FSSAI (like USFDA) allows rounding down when <0.5 g/serving. Partially hydrogenated vegetable oil is the primary source of industrial trans fatty acids — its presence in the ingredient list is a reliable indicator of trans fat presence. FSSAI has mandated phasing out PHOs (deadline 2022), but legacy products may still circulate.

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