Page 8 of 11

DR5.1,DR6.1 | Ectoparasitic Infestations — Practice Quiz

Practice 10 questions · Untimed · Unlimited attempts

Click any question card to reveal the correct answer.

Q1 DR5.1 1 pt

A 10-year-old boy presents with intensely pruritic lesions in the finger web spaces, wrists, and periumbilical area for 3 weeks. His mother and younger sibling have similar complaints. Examination reveals linear burrows in the web spaces. Which organism is responsible?

A Pediculus humanus capitis
B Sarcoptes scabiei var. hominis
C Phthirus pubis
D Tinea pedis dermatophyte

Correct. Sarcoptes scabiei var. hominis causes scabies. The fertilised female burrows into the stratum corneum, creating the characteristic burrow. Family clustering and nocturnal itch are key epidemiological clues.

Scabies is caused by Sarcoptes scabiei var. hominis, an eight-legged mite (arachnid). The burrow in web spaces is pathognomonic.

The correct answer is B. The burrow in web spaces, nocturnal itch, and family clustering point strongly to Sarcoptes scabiei var. hominis. Pediculus capitis causes head lice; Phthirus pubis causes pubic lice.

Click to reveal answer

Q2 DR5.1 1 pt

A 25-year-old man with scabies is prescribed treatment. Which of the following is the correct first-line topical scabicide and application instruction?

A Permethrin 1% cream — apply to scalp only, wash off after 10 minutes
B Permethrin 5% cream — apply from neck downwards to all body surface, leave on for 8-12 hours, then wash off
C Lindane 1% lotion — apply from neck downwards, preferred agent in pregnancy
D Benzyl benzoate 10% — single-dose oral tablet

Correct. Permethrin 5% cream is the first-line topical scabicide. It must be applied from the neck downwards to the entire body surface (including under nails, between toes, and to genitalia), left for 8-12 hours, then washed off. A second application after 1 week is often recommended.

First-line topical treatment for scabies is permethrin 5% cream applied neck-down for 8-12 hours. Permethrin 1% is used for pediculosis capitis, not scabies.

Correct answer is B. Permethrin 5% cream applied neck-down for 8-12 hours is first-line. Permethrin 1% is for head lice. Lindane is neurotoxic and not recommended in pregnancy or children. Benzyl benzoate is topical, not oral.

Click to reveal answer

Q3 DR5.1 1 pt

When treating scabies in a family, which of the following contact management principles is MOST important to prevent treatment failure?

A Treat only symptomatic household members and wait to see if others develop itch
B Treat all close contacts simultaneously, including asymptomatic individuals
C Treat the index case twice before treating contacts
D Contacts need treatment only if they share a bed with the index case

Correct. Simultaneous treatment of ALL close contacts (household members, sexual partners) — including those without symptoms — is mandatory. The incubation period is 4-6 weeks in first infestation; asymptomatic contacts are not yet sensitised but carry mites and will reinfest treated individuals.

Treatment failure in scabies most commonly results from not treating all close contacts simultaneously. Even asymptomatic contacts may harbour mites in the pre-sensitisation phase.

Correct answer is B. Treating only symptomatic contacts is the most common reason for scabies treatment failure. Asymptomatic contacts in the pre-sensitisation phase harbour live mites and reinfest treated individuals.

Click to reveal answer

Q4 DR5.1 1 pt

A 40-year-old man with HIV infection presents with widespread hyperkeratotic, crusted lesions over the scalp, ears, palms, and soles. Multiple family members who nursed him have developed typical scabies. What is this presentation?

A Classic scabies with secondary bacterial infection
B Bullous scabies
C Crusted (Norwegian) scabies
D Nodular scabies

Correct. Crusted (Norwegian) scabies represents hyperinfestation occurring when the immune response is unable to control mite proliferation (as in HIV/AIDS). The thick hyperkeratotic crusts contain thousands to millions of mites, making it extraordinarily contagious. Standard permethrin alone may be insufficient; oral ivermectin is typically combined.

Crusted (Norwegian) scabies is a hyperinfestation in immunocompromised patients (HIV, HTLV-1, organ transplant recipients, elderly/institutionalised). Millions of mites are present; highly contagious to contacts.

Correct answer is C. The combination of immunocompromise (HIV), widespread hyperkeratotic crusted lesions, and highly contagious spread to carers is the classic presentation of crusted (Norwegian) scabies.

Click to reveal answer

Q5 DR5.1 1 pt

Post-scabetic itch persisting 2 weeks after a confirmed adequate course of permethrin 5% in a patient whose clinical examination shows healing — with no new burrows and no family member with active infestation — most likely represents:

A Treatment failure requiring a different scabicide
B Reinfestation from an untreated contact
C Post-scabetic itch from residual hypersensitivity to mite antigens
D Secondary bacterial superinfection requiring antibiotics

Correct. Post-scabetic itch is a type-IV (delayed-type) hypersensitivity reaction to residual mite antigens (dead mites, eggs, faecal pellets) and can persist for 2-4 weeks after successful treatment. The absence of new burrows and absence of active infestation in contacts are the key reassurance clues. Management is oral antihistamines and/or topical corticosteroids, not re-treatment.

Post-scabetic itch from residual type-IV hypersensitivity to dead mite antigens and faecal pellets can persist 2-4 weeks after successful treatment. Distinguishing this from reinfestation prevents unnecessary re-treatment.

Correct answer is C. With no new burrows and no active contacts, persistent itch 2 weeks after treatment is post-scabetic hypersensitivity, not treatment failure. Unnecessary re-treatment adds toxicity without benefit.

Click to reveal answer

Q6 DR6.1 1 pt

A school nurse identifies a 7-year-old girl with pediculosis capitis. What is the most reliable diagnostic method?

A Observation of non-viable nits at any distance from the scalp
B Demonstration of live lice by wet-combing with a fine-toothed louse comb
C KOH mount of scalp scrapings showing septate hyphae
D Tzanck smear showing multinucleated giant cells

Correct. The gold standard for diagnosing active pediculosis capitis is demonstrating live lice. Wet-combing damp, conditioned hair with a fine-toothed (≤0.3 mm) louse comb over white paper is more reliable than visual inspection alone. Dead nits can persist on hair shafts for weeks after successful treatment and should not trigger re-treatment.

Diagnosis of pediculosis capitis requires demonstration of LIVE lice — best achieved by wet-combing damp conditioned hair. Nits alone are insufficient (dead nits persist after successful treatment).

Correct answer is B. Non-viable (dead/empty) nits alone do not confirm active infestation. Live lice must be demonstrated — wet-combing is the most reliable method.

Click to reveal answer

Q7 DR6.1 1 pt

A 25-year-old man presents with generalised body itching. Examination of his clothing seams reveals adult lice and nits. His skin shows excoriations and maculae ceruleae on the trunk. Which type of pediculosis does he have, and what is its public health significance?

A Pediculosis capitis — not a vector for systemic disease
B Pediculosis corporis — vector for epidemic typhus, relapsing fever, and trench fever
C Pediculosis pubis — commonly associated with STDs
D Pediculosis capitis — vector for epidemic typhus

Correct. Pediculosis corporis is unique in that the lice live and lay eggs in clothing seams, not on skin — this is why examining the clothing is mandatory. The maculae ceruleae (bluish-grey macules) result from louse saliva. Crucially, P. corporis is the vector for epidemic typhus (Rickettsia prowazekii), epidemic relapsing fever (Borrelia recurrentis), and trench fever (Bartonella quintana) — making it the most medically significant louse.

Pediculosis corporis (body louse, Pediculus humanus corporis) lives in clothing seams (not on skin), causes maculae ceruleae, and is the vector for epidemic typhus (Rickettsia prowazekii), epidemic relapsing fever (Borrelia recurrentis), and trench fever (Bartonella quintana).

Correct answer is B. The clinical clue is lice and nits in clothing seams (not on hair). P. corporis is the louse with systemic disease-vectoring capability — epidemic typhus, relapsing fever, trench fever.

Click to reveal answer

Q8 DR6.1 1 pt

A 6-year-old child is brought with head lice confirmed on wet-combing. What is the first-line treatment for pediculosis capitis in India?

A Permethrin 1% lotion — single application, rinse after 10 minutes
B Permethrin 1% lotion — apply to scalp, rinse after 10 minutes, repeat after 7-10 days
C Oral ivermectin — single dose (200 mcg/kg)
D Malathion 0.5% — first-line due to low resistance rates

Correct. Permethrin 1% is first-line for pediculosis capitis. A single application kills live lice but not all eggs (nits); repeating after 7-10 days ensures any newly hatched nymphs are killed before they can mature and lay eggs. The second application is essential to prevent re-establishment of infestation.

First-line treatment for pediculosis capitis is permethrin 1% lotion applied to damp hair, left 10 minutes, rinsed, repeated after 7-10 days (to kill newly hatched nymphs from eggs missed in the first application).

Correct answer is B. A single application of permethrin 1% is not sufficient — eggs (nits) may survive the first treatment. Repeating after 7-10 days is mandatory. Oral ivermectin may be used for resistant/extensive cases but is not first-line.

Click to reveal answer

Q9 DR5.1 1 pt

A pregnant woman with scabies asks about treatment options. Which of the following is the safest choice?

A Oral ivermectin — preferred in pregnancy for its single-dose convenience
B Lindane 1% — safe in pregnancy as it is applied topically only
C Permethrin 5% cream — considered safest topical scabicide in pregnancy
D Benzyl benzoate 25% — safe in all trimesters as it does not penetrate skin

Correct. Permethrin 5% cream is classified as FDA Category B in pregnancy and is the safest topical scabicide option. It has minimal systemic absorption. Lindane is absolutely contraindicated in pregnancy due to neurotoxicity. Oral ivermectin is not recommended in pregnancy (FDA Category C; potential teratogenicity not fully excluded). Benzyl benzoate at 25% can be irritant; dilution to 12.5% is used in pregnancy as a second-line option.

In pregnancy, permethrin 5% cream is the preferred scabicide. Lindane is contraindicated (neurotoxicity risk). Oral ivermectin is not recommended in pregnancy. Benzyl benzoate is used (diluted to 12.5%) but is second-line.

Correct answer is C. Permethrin 5% cream is the safest option in pregnancy. Lindane is contraindicated. Oral ivermectin should be avoided in pregnancy.

Click to reveal answer

Q10 DR6.1 1 pt

A 14-year-old girl presents with intense pruritus in the pubic region. Examination reveals bluish-grey macules (maculae ceruleae) at the base of pubic hairs and visible nits attached to hair shafts. What is the most appropriate management step beyond topical treatment?

A Notify the school principal as this is a school-transmitted infection
B Screen and treat sexual contacts; consider evaluation for other STDs
C Treat with lindane 1% as first-line; no contact evaluation needed
D Treat with oral ivermectin only; topical agents are ineffective for pubic lice

Correct. Pediculosis pubis (crab louse, Phthirus pubis) is predominantly sexually transmitted. Sexual contacts must be identified and treated simultaneously with the index case to prevent re-infestation. The presence of pubic lice in an adolescent warrants consideration of other STDs. In children below the age of sexual activity, pubic lice should raise the possibility of sexual abuse.

Pediculosis pubis in adults/adolescents is sexually transmitted. Sexual contacts must be traced and treated simultaneously. Co-infection with other STDs should be screened. In children, pediculosis pubis may indicate sexual abuse.

Correct answer is B. Pediculosis pubis is an STD in adolescents and adults. Sexual contact tracing, simultaneous treatment, and STD screening are mandatory alongside topical treatment.

Click to reveal answer