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FM2.{13-16,20-28},FM14.6 | Autopsy & Crime Scene Investigation — Practice Quiz

Practice 12 questions · Untimed · Unlimited attempts

Click any question card to reveal the correct answer.

Q1 FM3.1 1 pt

A medicolegal autopsy is to be performed on a victim of an alleged road traffic accident. Before commencing the internal examination, which of the following steps is MOST important?

A Immediately open the thorax to examine the heart and aorta
B A thorough external examination documenting all injuries, clothing, and trace evidence
C Draw blood for toxicology and then open the skull first
D Remove all clothing and place the body in standard position before any documentation

The external examination is the first and one of the most critical steps of any medicolegal autopsy. It documents clothing (trace evidence), body position findings, all external injuries, identifying features, and provides the opportunity to collect evidence before it is disturbed. Opening body cavities first destroys the external evidence hierarchy.

Medicolegal autopsy sequence: identity verification → external examination (clothing in situ + photograph) → evidence collection → undress → full external examination → internal examination.

External examination must precede internal examination. Clothing and external injuries are documented in situ with photography before any clothing is removed or internal cavities opened.

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Q2 FM3.1 1 pt

Which of the following correctly describes the legal basis for a medicolegal (police) autopsy in India under BNSS 2023?

A It requires consent from the next of kin in all cases
B It is ordered by the investigating police officer under BNSS Section 176 for sudden/unnatural/suspicious deaths
C It requires a court order from the Sessions Court in all cases
D It is voluntary and performed only at the family's request

BNSS Section 176 (replacing CrPC Section 174) authorises the police to order a post-mortem examination as part of the police inquest for sudden, suspicious, unnatural, or uncertified deaths. Next-of-kin consent is NOT required — the autopsy proceeds under legal authority. A court order is not needed at the initial stage.

Two types of autopsy: (1) medicolegal — ordered by police/coroner, no family consent needed; (2) clinical — family consent required. BNSS Section 176 = authority for medicolegal PM.

Medicolegal PM: ordered by police (BNSS Sec. 176), no family consent required, no court order needed. Family consent IS needed for clinical/hospital autopsies (non-medicolegal).

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Q3 FM3.2 1 pt

During a medicolegal autopsy on a suspected homicide victim, which technique ensures the best documentation of the relationship between skin wounds and underlying organ injuries?

A Remove all organs en masse before examining wounds
B Track each external wound through tissue layers in situ to the organ of interest
C Photograph external wounds only; organ examination is separate
D First complete full histopathology, then perform gross examination

In homicide autopsies, tracking each wound in situ (through skin, subcutaneous tissue, muscle, and into the organ) is essential to establish the wound track, direction, and organ injured. En masse organ removal destroys this spatial relationship, which is critical in court testimony.

Homicide autopsy key principle: track each stab/gunshot wound in situ before organ removal. Document track length, direction, organs traversed — all are evidential.

Wound track in situ examination is mandatory in homicide — it establishes trajectory, depth, direction, and the relationship between external wound and internal injury. En masse removal destroys this evidence.

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Q4 FM3.3 1 pt

A police doctor is asked to perform an autopsy on a person who died in custody. Which of the following is the MOST important additional safeguard specific to custody death autopsies?

A Perform the PM within 6 hours of death to prevent putrefaction
B Have the PM witnessed by an independent doctor and the family's own doctor (if requested)
C Obtain written consent from the arresting officer before proceeding
D Limit the PM to external examination only to avoid allegations of evidence tampering

Custody deaths are high-profile medicolegal cases. The key safeguard is independent witness by a second doctor and, if requested, the family's medical representative. This ensures transparency, prevents allegations of evidence concealment, and is required by NHRC guidelines. The full autopsy including internal examination must be performed.

Custody death autopsy safeguards: independent witness doctor, NHRC guidelines, full PM (not limited), videographic documentation, family representation welcome, preserve all samples.

In custody death, an independent witness doctor is mandatory — limiting to external examination would be insufficient and inappropriate. Officer consent is not required. Timing is important but not the primary additional safeguard.

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Q5 FM3.4 1 pt

A body recovered from a fire accident is so severely burned that the facial features are unrecognisable. The most definitive method of identification in this case is:

A Visual identification by a family member
B Fingerprint comparison with pre-existing records
C DNA profiling compared with a reference sample from a family member
D Dental charting compared with ante-mortem dental records

In severely burned bodies where fingerprints are destroyed and facial recognition is impossible, DNA profiling is the most definitive identification method. A reference sample (buccal swab, blood) from a first-degree relative provides the comparative DNA. Dental comparison is also highly reliable IF ante-mortem dental records exist, but DNA is universally applicable.

Identification hierarchy in mutilated/burned remains: DNA (most definitive) > dental records (highly reliable, needs ante-mortem records) > fingerprints (needs intact skin) > visual (least reliable).

Severely burned bodies: fingerprints destroyed (unreliable), visual ID unreliable. Dental charting is reliable IF ante-mortem records exist. DNA is universally applicable as the most definitive method.

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Q6 FM3.5 1 pt

At a crime scene involving a suspected shooting, the first doctor to arrive is asked by police to retrieve the bullet. What is the MOST appropriate action?

A Retrieve the bullet immediately to prevent it from being lost
B Document the wound but leave the bullet for the forensic team and radiologist
C If no radiologist is available and the patient is critical, retrieve bullet during life-saving surgery under proper chain of custody documentation
D Never retrieve bullets — this is the ballistics team's responsibility

If the patient is critical and surgery is needed, the surgeon may retrieve the bullet during the life-saving procedure. The critical requirement is proper chain of custody documentation: the bullet must be labelled, sealed in a container, and handed over to the police with a witness receipt. At autopsy, the forensic pathologist retrieves the bullet with the same protocol.

Bullet chain of custody: retrieve only when necessary (surgery/PM); document who retrieved it, when, from where; seal in labelled container; hand over to police with signed receipt; every transfer documented.

In clinical care of a critical patient, bullets can be retrieved during surgery — but with strict chain of custody documentation. The principle is: life-saving is primary, evidence collection is secondary but must be done properly when done.

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Q7 FM3.3 1 pt

An anaesthetic death autopsy reveals no gross or histological cause of death. Which of the following investigations is MOST important in such a case?

A Serum tryptase for suspected anaphylaxis during anaesthesia
B Blood culture for sepsis
C Lumbar puncture to detect CSF changes
D Nerve conduction studies

In suspected peri-anaesthetic anaphylaxis (suxamethonium, latex, antibiotics), serum tryptase (ideally collected within 4 hours of the reaction and at 24 hours post-mortem) is the most important investigation. Tryptase is released from mast cells during anaphylaxis and can be detected post-mortem. It is specific for anaphylactic/anaphylactoid reactions and must be collected early.

Anaesthetic death autopsy: collect serum/vitreous tryptase, drug levels, check anaesthetic equipment records, airway integrity. Tryptase is pathognomonic for anaphylaxis — most important test when PM is otherwise negative.

Serum tryptase is the key test for peri-anaesthetic anaphylaxis — the most common hidden cause of sudden intraoperative death with no gross findings. Collect from vitreous or blood within 4h if possible; PM levels still useful up to 24h.

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Q8 FM3.4 1 pt

In a mass disaster (train collision, 37 fatalities), the forensic team is setting up a Disaster Victim Identification (DVI) process. Which international standard protocol is used for DVI?

A WHO International Disaster Classification Protocol
B Interpol DVI Guidelines (Yellow Forms for ante-mortem, Pink Forms for post-mortem)
C Indian Forensic Science Laboratory SOP for mass casualties
D AIIMS DVI Protocol

Interpol's Disaster Victim Identification (DVI) guidelines use a standardised colour-coded form system: Yellow Forms for ante-mortem data (collected from family/referring agencies) and Pink Forms for post-mortem examination findings. These are matched by the DVI Reconciliation team for identification.

Mass disaster DVI: Interpol protocol — Yellow (ante-mortem) + Pink (post-mortem) forms; 4 primary identifiers: fingerprints, dental, DNA, medical records (implants); visual/circumstantial are secondary.

Interpol DVI Guidelines: Yellow = ante-mortem data; Pink = post-mortem data; matching = reconciliation. This is the internationally accepted standard and is used in mass disasters in India.

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Q9 FM3.5 1 pt

A crime scene investigator arrives at a location where a body was discovered. Which of the following actions is the HIGHEST priority at the scene?

A Move the body immediately to prevent contamination of physical evidence by weather
B Secure and cordon the scene; record and document everything before any disturbance
C Interview all witnesses before examining the body
D Collect blood samples from the body immediately before coagulation prevents collection

The absolute first priority at a crime scene is scene security and documentation. The scene must be cordoned off, photographed in its undisturbed state, and a log of all persons entering established. Moving the body, interviewing witnesses, or collecting evidence before documentation destroys irreplaceable contextual evidence.

Crime scene protocol: SECURITY first (cordon, access log) → DOCUMENTATION (photography, video, sketches, notes) → EVIDENCE COLLECTION → BODY EXAMINATION. Never reverse this order.

Scene security and documentation first — before body examination, before evidence collection, before witness interviews. Moving the body or collecting samples before documentation is a fundamental error in crime scene management.

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Q10 FM3.2 1 pt

The 'Virchow technique' of post-mortem dissection differs from the 'Rokitansky technique' in which key respect?

A Virchow method removes all organs en masse as an organ block; Rokitansky examines organs in situ
B Virchow method removes and examines each organ individually after in situ ligature; Rokitansky uses en bloc removal
C Virchow is used for medico-legal cases only; Rokitansky for clinical cases
D Virchow method involves no examination of the skull; Rokitansky does

The Virchow technique removes each organ individually after ligating connecting vessels and ducts in situ, then examines each separately. The Rokitansky (or Letulle) technique removes all thoracic and abdominal organs en bloc as a single unit, then separates and examines them. The Ghon technique is a hybrid. Most teaching hospitals use a modified technique.

PM dissection techniques: Virchow (individual), Rokitansky/Letulle (en bloc), Ghon (hybrid). Know the distinction — commonly tested in FM. Most Indian forensic PM uses a modified Virchow/Ghon approach.

Virchow = individual organ removal (one by one, in situ ligature). Rokitansky = en bloc removal of all organs together. Both examine all organs; neither is restricted to specific case types.

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Q11 FM3.4 1 pt

An exhumation is ordered by the court 6 months after burial. Which of the following is NOT a recognised reason for exhumation in Indian medicolegal practice?

A When the original post-mortem was incomplete or not performed
B To obtain samples for DNA profiling following a paternity dispute
C To confirm the identity of the deceased in a suspected mistake of identity case
D To retrieve valuables buried with the body at family request

Exhumation is a legal process ordered by a court or magistrate for specific medicolegal purposes: re-examination when PM was incomplete/not done, new evidence, identity disputes, DNA profiling. Retrieval of valuables at family request is NOT a recognised medicolegal indication.

Exhumation indications: incomplete/absent original PM, new evidence in investigation, identity in doubt, DNA for paternity/inheritance, suspected poisoning. Always court-ordered. No exhumation without court order.

Medicolegal exhumation: court-ordered, specific forensic purpose (incomplete PM, identity, new evidence, DNA). Personal/family reasons (retrieving belongings) are not valid medicolegal indications.

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Q12 FM3.3 1 pt

In a suspected medical negligence autopsy, the treating surgeon requests to be present at the post-mortem examination. What is the correct approach?

A Allow the surgeon full participation in the examination to assist with anatomical identification
B The surgeon may observe but must not participate in or direct the examination
C The surgeon must not be present under any circumstances
D The surgeon should perform the autopsy themselves to ensure accuracy

In a suspected medical negligence autopsy, the treating doctor/surgeon has a conflict of interest. They may be allowed to observe (as a witness) but must not direct, participate in, or influence the examination. The examining forensic pathologist must be independent. Having the treating surgeon perform the autopsy would be a fundamental conflict of interest.

Medical negligence autopsy: independent forensic pathologist required; treating team may observe only; no participation/direction; family doctor may also observe; all findings documented meticulously.

The treating surgeon is a potential subject of the investigation — conflict of interest. Observation is permissible; participation or direction is not. The independent forensic pathologist must conduct the examination.

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