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IM11.1-24 | Diabetes Mellitus — Practice Quiz

Practice 10 questions · Untimed · Unlimited attempts

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Q1 IM11.11 1 pt

A 52-year-old man presents for a routine health check. He has no symptoms. His fasting plasma glucose is 134 mg/dL on this visit. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step to confirm the diagnosis of diabetes mellitus?

A Start metformin immediately and recheck in 3 months
B Repeat fasting plasma glucose on a separate day
C Proceed directly to a 75 g OGTT on the same day
D Check HbA1c; if 6.5% or above, no further testing required
E Diagnose diabetes based on this single fasting value alone

Correct. In an asymptomatic patient, a single elevated fasting glucose (even above 126 mg/dL) requires confirmation on a separate day. The diagnostic criteria require either two abnormal values on two separate occasions, or a single unequivocal result in a symptomatic patient with classic features (polyuria, polydipsia, unexplained weight loss) and random glucose 200 mg/dL or above.

Diabetes diagnostic thresholds: fasting plasma glucose 126 mg/dL or above, 2-hour OGTT 200 mg/dL or above, HbA1c 6.5% or above, or random glucose 200 mg/dL or above with symptoms. In asymptomatic patients, a single value must always be confirmed on a separate day.

A single fasting plasma glucose of 126 mg/dL or above meets the diagnostic threshold only in a symptomatic patient or when confirmed by a second test on a separate day. In this asymptomatic man, the diagnosis must be confirmed by repeating the fasting plasma glucose (or performing HbA1c or OGTT) on a different day before treatment is initiated.

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Q2 IM11.23 1 pt

A 19-year-old woman with known type 1 diabetes is brought to the emergency department with vomiting, abdominal pain, and deep laboured breathing for 8 hours. Blood glucose is 480 mg/dL. Arterial blood gas shows pH 7.18, HCO3 10 mEq/L. Urinary ketones are strongly positive. Serum potassium is 3.2 mEq/L. Which of the following is the MOST critical initial action?

A Start intravenous insulin infusion immediately at 0.1 units/kg/hour
B Begin potassium replacement before starting insulin
C Administer sodium bicarbonate to correct the acidosis
D Give subcutaneous insulin as DKA can be managed without IV insulin
E Start aggressive fluid resuscitation with hypertonic saline

Correct. The potassium is 3.2 mEq/L, which is already low. Starting insulin in this state is dangerous: insulin drives potassium into cells, causing a further fall in serum potassium that can precipitate fatal cardiac arrhythmias. The rule is absolute — if serum potassium is below 3.5 mEq/L, potassium must be replaced and the level corrected to 3.5 mEq/L or above before insulin is started. IV fluids (0.9% saline) should also be commenced immediately.

DKA management rule: K+ below 3.5 mEq/L = HOLD insulin and replace potassium first. Begin IV 0.9% saline immediately for fluid resuscitation. IV insulin at 0.1 units/kg/hour is started only after potassium is at or above 3.5 mEq/L. Bicarbonate is not routinely given (reserve for pH below 6.9).

In DKA with serum potassium below 3.5 mEq/L, insulin must NOT be started until potassium has been replaced and the level is 3.5 mEq/L or above. Insulin drives potassium into cells, and starting it with an already-low potassium risks fatal hypokalaemia and cardiac arrest. This is the single most important safety rule in DKA management.

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Q3 IM11.17 1 pt

A 58-year-old man with type 2 diabetes, hypertension, and an eGFR of 42 mL/min/1.73 m2 is currently on metformin 1000 mg twice daily. He is well-controlled (HbA1c 7.2%) but has developed new-onset proteinuria (urine albumin-creatinine ratio 350 mg/g). Which drug class offers BOTH cardiovascular and renal protection and should be added to his regimen?

A Sulfonylurea (glibenclamide)
B SGLT2 inhibitor (empagliflozin or dapagliflozin)
C Thiazolidinedione (pioglitazone)
D DPP-4 inhibitor (sitagliptin)
E Alpha-glucosidase inhibitor (acarbose)

Correct. SGLT2 inhibitors (empagliflozin, dapagliflozin, canagliflozin) have proven cardiovascular outcome benefits and are indicated in T2DM with established cardiovascular disease or high CV risk. They also significantly reduce progression of diabetic kidney disease, including reduction of proteinuria and slowing eGFR decline. At eGFR 42, SGLT2 inhibitors can still be used for cardiorenal benefit (check specific agent thresholds: dapagliflozin can be used for CKD benefit down to eGFR 25).

Modern T2DM treatment is outcome-driven. SGLT2 inhibitors are indicated in T2DM with: established CVD or high CV risk (reduce MACE), heart failure (reduce hospitalisation), or CKD with proteinuria (reduce progression). They work by glucosuria and have haemodynamic and anti-fibrotic renal mechanisms. Check eGFR thresholds for the specific agent.

SGLT2 inhibitors are the preferred add-on class in T2DM with proteinuric CKD and high cardiovascular risk, given their proven renal protective and cardiovascular outcome benefits (EMPA-REG OUTCOME, CREDENCE, DAPA-CKD trials). Sulfonylureas carry hypoglycaemia risk and no organ-protective benefit. TZDs cause fluid retention. DPP-4 inhibitors are weight-neutral and have no proven renal outcome benefit.

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Q4 IM11.16 1 pt

A 45-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes presents to the clinic. She was diagnosed 5 years ago and is on metformin 500 mg twice daily. Her current HbA1c is 9.4%. She has no cardiovascular disease, no CKD, and her BMI is 34 kg/m2. She is very concerned about weight gain. Which drug class, when added to metformin, simultaneously lowers HbA1c and promotes weight loss?

A Sulfonylurea (glimepiride)
B GLP-1 receptor agonist (semaglutide or liraglutide)
C Insulin glargine (basal insulin)
D Thiazolidinedione (pioglitazone)
E DPP-4 inhibitor (vildagliptin)

Correct. GLP-1 receptor agonists (semaglutide, liraglutide, dulaglutide) are the class of choice in overweight/obese T2DM patients who are concerned about weight gain. They stimulate glucose-dependent insulin secretion (low hypoglycaemia risk), suppress glucagon, slow gastric emptying, and reduce appetite — resulting in significant weight loss (3-5 kg average, up to 15 kg with semaglutide 2.4 mg weekly). They also have cardiovascular outcome benefits in high-risk patients.

Drug effect on weight: GLP-1 RA and SGLT2i cause weight loss; metformin is weight-neutral; DPP-4i is weight-neutral; SU, TZD, and insulin cause weight gain. In an obese T2DM patient, prefer GLP-1 RA or SGLT2i as add-on to metformin. GLP-1 RA is biguanide class misclassification trap — it is a separate incretin-based class.

GLP-1 receptor agonists are the preferred add-on in obese T2DM when weight loss is a treatment priority. Sulfonylureas and insulin both cause weight gain. TZDs cause weight gain and fluid retention. DPP-4 inhibitors are weight-neutral. GLP-1 RAs lower HbA1c substantially and promote weight loss through central appetite suppression and delayed gastric emptying.

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Q5 IM11.24 1 pt

A 67-year-old man with long-standing type 2 diabetes is brought in confused and poorly responsive. His carer reports he has not been drinking well for 3 days in the setting of an acute febrile illness. Blood glucose is 840 mg/dL. Serum sodium is 148 mEq/L. Serum osmolality is calculated at 372 mOsm/kg. Urinary ketones are negative. Arterial pH is 7.36. Which condition BEST describes this presentation?

A Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)
B Hyperosmolar hyperglycaemic state (HHS)
C Euglycaemic DKA
D Lactic acidosis
E Hypoglycaemia with rebound hyperglycaemia

Correct. HHS (hyperosmolar hyperglycaemic state) is characterised by extreme hyperglycaemia (typically above 600 mg/dL, often 800-1200 mg/dL), marked hyperosmolality (effective osmolality above 320 mOsm/kg), severe dehydration, and absence of significant ketosis or acidosis. It predominantly occurs in elderly type 2 diabetic patients and is often precipitated by an intercurrent illness with inadequate fluid intake. Mortality is 10-20%, significantly higher than DKA.

HHS vs DKA: HHS = glucose commonly above 600 mg/dL, effective osmolality above 320 mOsm/kg, no significant ketosis (ketones negative or trace), pH normal or near-normal, typically elderly T2DM. DKA = glucose commonly 250-600 mg/dL, ketonaemia, metabolic acidosis (pH below 7.3), predominantly T1DM. Both may overlap.

DKA is characterised by the triad of hyperglycaemia, ketosis, and metabolic acidosis (pH below 7.3, HCO3 below 15 mEq/L) — predominantly in T1DM. This patient has pH 7.36 (normal), no ketones, but extreme hyperglycaemia and hyperosmolality in an elderly T2DM patient — the classic HHS profile. Management differs: slower fluid replacement over 48-72 hours, low-dose insulin (only once glucose falls below 300 mg/dL initially).

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Q6 IM11.14 1 pt

A 38-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes is found unresponsive at home. Her blood glucose is 28 mg/dL. She is unable to swallow. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate immediate management?

A Give 15 g of oral glucose (glucose gel or juice) via mouth
B Administer 50% dextrose 50 mL intravenously (25 g glucose)
C Inject subcutaneous insulin to correct the counter-regulatory hyperglycaemia
D Give intramuscular glucagon 1 mg and await response before IV access
E Administer IV hydrocortisone as the first-line counter-regulatory hormone replacement

Correct. In an unconscious patient with severe hypoglycaemia who cannot swallow, oral glucose is contraindicated (aspiration risk). IV access should be obtained immediately and 50% dextrose (25-50 mL, providing 12.5-25 g glucose) administered as a bolus. This rapidly raises blood glucose. If IV access is not immediately available, IM glucagon 1 mg is the alternative while IV access is established, but IV dextrose is preferred when IV access is available.

Severe hypoglycaemia management: conscious and able to swallow = 15-20 g oral fast-acting carbohydrate; unresponsive or unable to swallow = IV 50% dextrose (25-50 mL) OR IM glucagon 1 mg (if no IV access). After resolution, give a slow-acting carbohydrate snack, monitor glucose, and identify the precipitant.

Oral glucose must never be given to an unconscious or unresponsive patient — the aspiration risk is unacceptably high. The priority is IV access and immediate IV 50% dextrose 25-50 mL. IM glucagon 1 mg is a valid alternative if IV access cannot be established quickly. After recovery, the cause of severe hypoglycaemia must be identified and recurrence prevented.

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Q7 IM11.5 1 pt

A 50-year-old man with type 2 diabetes presents with burning pain and paraesthesiae in both feet, worse at night, for 6 months. His HbA1c is 9.1%. Clinical examination reveals reduced vibration sense and absent ankle jerks bilaterally, with intact pulses. Which of the following BEST describes the pattern of neuropathy present?

A Mononeuritis multiplex
B Length-dependent distal symmetrical sensorimotor polyneuropathy
C Autonomic neuropathy causing orthostatic hypotension
D Proximal diabetic amyotrophy (radiculoplexopathy)
E Acute painful neuropathy from rapid glycaemic correction

Correct. The most common form of diabetic neuropathy is the length-dependent distal symmetrical sensorimotor polyneuropathy — affecting the longest nerves first (feet before hands, stocking-and-glove distribution). Key features: bilateral symmetrical symptoms, burning/paraesthesiae worse at night, reduced vibration sense (large fibre), absent ankle jerks, and later motor involvement. It is caused by metabolic and vascular injury to peripheral nerves related to chronic hyperglycaemia.

Diabetic peripheral neuropathy: most common pattern is length-dependent distal symmetrical polyneuropathy (DSPN) — affects longest axons first (feet before hands), burning/aching at night, reduced vibration and proprioception, absent ankle jerks. Screen annually with 10 g monofilament and 128 Hz tuning fork. Poor glycaemic control is the strongest modifiable risk factor.

This presentation — bilateral symmetrical burning pain and paraesthesiae in feet, absent ankle jerks, reduced vibration sense, normal pulses — is classic length-dependent distal symmetrical polyneuropathy, the most common diabetic neuropathy. Mononeuritis multiplex involves multiple individual nerves asymmetrically. Amyotrophy causes proximal weakness and wasting. Autonomic neuropathy causes orthostatic symptoms, gastroparesis, or erectile dysfunction.

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Q8 IM11.18 1 pt

A 44-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes has her annual review. She is on metformin and amlodipine. Her urine albumin-creatinine ratio (uACR) is 65 mg/g on two consecutive readings 3 months apart. Her eGFR is 72 mL/min/1.73 m2. Her blood pressure is 138/88 mmHg. Which pharmacological intervention MOST specifically addresses her renal complication AND blood pressure simultaneously?

A Add a beta-blocker (atenolol) for blood pressure control
B Add an ACE inhibitor or ARB as first-line treatment for diabetic nephropathy with hypertension
C Add a thiazide diuretic for blood pressure and fluid retention
D Add a calcium channel blocker (nifedipine) to the existing amlodipine
E Intensify glycaemic control alone; do not add antihypertensives yet

Correct. ACE inhibitors (e.g., ramipril) or ARBs (e.g., losartan) are the cornerstone of treatment for diabetic nephropathy. They reduce intraglomerular pressure by dilating the efferent arteriole, thereby reducing proteinuria and slowing GFR decline — an effect independent of blood pressure lowering. In a diabetic patient with albuminuria (uACR 30-300 mg/g = microalbuminuria) and hypertension, an ACE inhibitor or ARB is the preferred antihypertensive class, addressing both blood pressure and renal protection simultaneously.

Diabetic nephropathy treatment: ACE inhibitor or ARB is first-line in all diabetic patients with albuminuria (uACR above 30 mg/g), regardless of blood pressure. Target BP in diabetic kidney disease is below 130/80 mmHg. Monitor potassium and creatinine after starting. Add SGLT2 inhibitor if eGFR allows for additional renoprotection (CREDENCE/DAPA-CKD evidence).

ACE inhibitors and ARBs have renoprotective effects in diabetic nephropathy beyond blood pressure control — they reduce intraglomerular hypertension by dilating the efferent arteriole, decreasing proteinuria and slowing CKD progression. They are the preferred antihypertensive class in T2DM with any degree of albuminuria (uACR above 30 mg/g). Note: never combine ACE inhibitor with ARB (increased hyperkalaemia and AKI risk without added benefit).

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Q9 IM11.19 1 pt

A 40-year-old man with type 1 diabetes is counselled on insulin injection technique. He admits he always injects in the same spot on his left thigh because it is painless and easy to reach. On examination, you find a firm, rubbery, painless subcutaneous mass at the site. His fasting glucoses have been erratic. What is the MOST likely reason for his erratic glycaemic control?

A He is using the wrong type of insulin
B Lipohypertrophy at the injection site causes unpredictable insulin absorption
C He is experiencing the Somogyi effect from nocturnal hypoglycaemia
D Insulin resistance has developed in his left thigh muscles
E The mass represents subcutaneous fat hypertrophy from poor diet

Correct. Lipohypertrophy is a firm, painless, rubbery subcutaneous mass that develops at sites of repeated insulin injection. It is painless, which is why patients prefer these sites — creating a vicious cycle. Insulin absorption from lipohypertrophic tissue is erratic and unpredictable (delayed or variable), causing unexplained hypo- and hyperglycaemic episodes. The solution is to rotate injection sites systematically and avoid previously lipohypertrophic areas.

Lipohypertrophy is the most common complication of insulin injection technique. It is painless (so patients keep using the site), firm/rubbery on palpation, and causes erratic insulin absorption. Always inspect injection sites annually. Teach patients to rotate sites systematically (abdomen, thighs, upper arms, buttocks) and to use a different spot within each area each time.

Lipohypertrophy (firm, painless subcutaneous mass at injection sites) is caused by the local anabolic effect of insulin at repeatedly-used injection sites. The absorbed insulin becomes erratic from these abnormal tissue depots — causing unexplained hypoglycaemia and hyperglycaemia. The patient prefers the site because it is painless, perpetuating the problem. Systematic site rotation prevents and resolves lipohypertrophy over time.

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Q10 IM11.5 1 pt

During a routine diabetes clinic visit, you screen a 52-year-old woman with 12-year history of type 2 diabetes for retinopathy. She has had no eye examination in 4 years. Her HbA1c is 8.6%. Which finding on fundoscopy would indicate NON-PROLIFERATIVE diabetic retinopathy (NPDR)?

A New vessels on the disc (NVD) with vitreous haemorrhage
B Microaneurysms, dot-blot haemorrhages, and hard exudates within the retina
C Pre-retinal haemorrhage between the vitreous and the retina
D Tractional retinal detachment
E Fibrovascular proliferation extending into the vitreous

Correct. Non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy (NPDR) is characterised by intraretinal changes only: microaneurysms (earliest sign), dot-blot haemorrhages, hard exudates (lipid deposits), soft exudates (cotton-wool spots — ischaemia), and intraretinal microvascular abnormalities (IRMA). In NPDR, there are no new vessels growing outside the retina. Progression to proliferative DR (PDR) is defined by neovascularisation — new vessel formation on the disc (NVD) or elsewhere (NVE).

Diabetic retinopathy staging: NPDR = intraretinal changes only (microaneurysms, haemorrhages, exudates, IRMA); PDR = neovascularisation (NVD or NVE), vitreous haemorrhage, pre-retinal haemorrhage, tractional retinal detachment. Diabetic macular oedema (DME) can occur at any stage and is the most common cause of visual impairment. Annual fundus examination is mandatory from diagnosis in T2DM.

New vessels on the disc (NVD), pre-retinal haemorrhage, and tractional retinal detachment are all features of PROLIFERATIVE diabetic retinopathy (PDR). NPDR is confined to intraretinal changes: microaneurysms (earliest sign), dot-blot haemorrhages, hard exudates, cotton-wool spots, and IRMA. The defining feature of proliferation is neovascularisation — pathological new vessel growth beyond the retinal boundaries.

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