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IM21.1-9 | Envenomation — Graded Quiz

Graded 11 questions · Untimed · 2 attempts

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Q1 IM21.7 1 pt

A 40-year-old farmer from Andhra Pradesh presents 4 hours after snakebite. Examination shows local swelling up to the thigh with haemorrhagic blisters, spontaneous gum bleeding, blood pressure 90/60 mmHg, and PR 112/min. His 20WBCT shows non-clotting blood. He receives 10 vials of polyvalent ASV IV. Six hours after the infusion ends, a repeat 20WBCT still shows non-clotting blood. What is the MOST appropriate next step?

A Administer fresh frozen plasma to correct the coagulopathy
B Repeat 20WBCT in another 6 hours before deciding on further treatment
C Give a further 10 vials of polyvalent ASV as the response is inadequate
D Platelet transfusion as the non-clotting suggests thrombocytopenia

Correct. A repeat dose of ASV is indicated when the 20WBCT remains non-clotting 6 hours after the initial dose. The initial 10 vials were insufficient to neutralise the circulating venom. ASV is the only definitive treatment — blood products (FFP, platelets, cryoprecipitate) do not work in VICC until all circulating venom is neutralised (giving clotting factors in the presence of active venom simply provides more substrate for depletion). A further 10 vials should be given.

ASV response monitoring: Repeat 20WBCT at 6 hours after ASV — if still non-clotting, give further 10 vials. Continue until 20WBCT normalises. Blood products for VICC are NOT first-line — venom must be neutralised first. After WBCT normalises, clotting factors recover within 6 hours as the liver synthesises them (provided liver function is intact).

Persistent non-clotting 20WBCT at 6 hours post-ASV = inadequate venom neutralisation = repeat ASV dose (10 more vials). Blood products (FFP, platelets) are INEFFECTIVE in VICC while free venom is still circulating — the venom will consume the transfused factors immediately. Blood products are only given once ASV has neutralised all circulating venom and WBCT normalises.

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Q2 IM21.7 1 pt

A 55-year-old woman is bitten by a snake in her garden near Chennai. On arrival she has ptosis, dysphagia, and can barely lift her head against gravity. Her SpO2 is 91% on room air. The 20WBCT shows normal clotting at 20 minutes. Which combination of treatments is MOST appropriate?

A Polyvalent ASV + supportive care only; neostigmine is not indicated for snakebite
B Polyvalent ASV + supplemental O2 + trial of neostigmine 1.5 mg IV with atropine 0.6 mg IV
C Polyvalent ASV + IV calcium gluconate + oxygen
D No ASV as 20WBCT is normal; give neostigmine only

Correct. This is systemic neurotoxic envenomation (ptosis, dysphagia, neck weakness, falling SpO2) — an absolute ASV indication regardless of 20WBCT result. Additionally, a neostigmine test/trial is indicated for post-synaptic neurotoxicity (cobra-type): neostigmine 1.5 mg IV (or 0.04 mg/kg) PLUS atropine 0.6 mg IV (to block muscarinic side effects). If there is improvement in ptosis/power within 30 min, continue neostigmine. Pre-synaptic toxins (krait) do not respond to neostigmine.

Neostigmine in snakebite: Indicated for post-synaptic neurotoxic envenomation (cobra). Dose: neostigmine 1.5 mg IV + atropine 0.6 mg IV — ALWAYS together. Assess for improvement in ptosis and respiratory function at 30 minutes. Pre-synaptic neurotoxins (krait) do not respond. In clinical practice, a test dose is given and response determines continued use.

Neurotoxic envenomation with systemic signs = ASV indication (neurotoxic envenomation is systemic envenomation). Plus: a neostigmine/atropine trial is indicated as some cobras have predominantly post-synaptic toxins that are reversible by acetylcholinesterase inhibition. Atropine must always accompany neostigmine (blocks excessive muscarinic secretions). Never give neostigmine without atropine.

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Q3 IM21.3 1 pt

A 32-year-old unconscious man is brought at midnight by family who say they found him in bed. He has bilateral ptosis, absent gag reflex, and respiratory distress with SpO2 78%. His bite wound shows only a tiny mark with minimal swelling. The family reports he slept on the floor in a rural house. The 20WBCT shows clotted blood at 20 minutes. Given this scenario, which of the following statements BEST explains the expected response to treatment?

A Neostigmine will reliably reverse his paralysis because cobra pre-synaptic toxins respond well
B ASV alone will reverse all his neurological deficits within 2 hours
C He will likely require mechanical ventilation; ASV and possible neostigmine trial are indicated but full recovery may take days to weeks
D Since 20WBCT is normal, this is likely a dry bite and no antivenom is needed

Correct. This is severe krait envenomation (nocturnal bite on sleeping person, painless, minimal local signs, pure neurotoxic). Common krait uses pre-synaptic neurotoxins (beta-bungarotoxin) that deplete acetylcholine from the neuromuscular junction — these do NOT respond reliably to neostigmine. The patient will require prolonged mechanical ventilation. ASV reduces further venom burden but cannot reverse established neurological damage quickly. Recovery takes days to weeks as nerve terminals regenerate.

Pre-synaptic neurotoxins (krait: beta-bungarotoxin) versus post-synaptic (cobra: alpha-bungarotoxin / alpha-cobratoxin). Pre-synaptic: deplete ACh from nerve terminal, established paralysis does not respond to neostigmine, prolonged ventilation needed. Post-synaptic: competitively block nicotinic receptor, may respond to neostigmine — test dose 1.5 mg with atropine 0.6 mg and assess in 30 min.

Krait envenomation uses predominantly PRE-synaptic neurotoxins — they irreversibly prevent acetylcholine release. ASV is indicated and important, but established paralysis will not reverse quickly. Neostigmine is unlikely to help (works on post-synaptic toxins). Prolonged mechanical ventilation is the cornerstone of treatment. A normal 20WBCT with neurotoxicity does not mean dry bite — krait is purely neurotoxic.

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Q4 IM21.8 1 pt

A 16-year-old boy in rural Maharashtra is stung by a scorpion at home. He arrives at the primary health centre with local pain at the sting site only. His BP is 100/70, HR 90/min, and he is fully conscious. What is the CORRECT management at this point?

A Prazosin 250 mcg orally immediately to prevent autonomic storm
B Oral analgesics, observation for 4-6 hours for systemic features, and prazosin only if Grade II features develop
C Propranolol 10 mg orally to blunt anticipated catecholamine surge
D IV adrenaline 0.3 mg as prophylaxis against anaphylaxis

Correct. This is Grade I scorpion envenomation — local pain only with normal vital signs. Grade I is managed with analgesia (paracetamol or NSAIDs) and observation for progression to systemic features. Prazosin is indicated only for Grade II or III (systemic autonomic features). Giving prazosin to a Grade I patient may cause hypotension without benefit. Propranolol is absolutely contraindicated at any grade.

Scorpion management by grade: Grade I (local only) = analgesia + observation 4-6 hours; Grade II (systemic autonomic features) = prazosin 250-500 mcg orally + observation + repeat dose every 3h if features persist; Grade III (pulmonary oedema, cardiogenic shock) = ICU, dobutamine for cardiogenic shock, prazosin, ventilatory support. Propranolol ALWAYS contraindicated — causes unopposed alpha vasoconstriction.

Grade I scorpion envenomation (local pain only) = analgesia + observation. Prazosin is only for Grade II (systemic autonomic features: hypertension, diaphoresis, tachycardia, cold extremities) or Grade III (pulmonary oedema, shock). Giving prazosin without systemic features is inappropriate. Propranolol is ALWAYS contraindicated in scorpion envenomation.

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Q5 IM21.6 1 pt

A 45-year-old man is bitten by a snake. He has local swelling and pain but no systemic features. His 20WBCT at 2 hours shows clotted blood. At 6 hours the 20WBCT is repeated and shows non-clotting blood. Which statement BEST explains this finding?

A The first 20WBCT was a false negative — the 6-hour test is the more reliable result
B Venom-induced consumption coagulopathy can develop in a delayed fashion; systemic envenomation has now developed and ASV is indicated
C The test at 6 hours was performed incorrectly — plastic tube likely used instead of glass
D The non-clotting result at 6 hours indicates laboratory contamination and should be repeated at 12 hours

Correct. VICC can develop in a delayed fashion — an initially normal 20WBCT does not rule out subsequent coagulopathy. Serial 20WBCT monitoring is mandatory. A non-clotting result at 6 hours, even after an initial normal result, confirms development of VICC and is an indication for ASV. This patient now has systemic envenomation and must receive antivenom.

Serial 20WBCT monitoring schedule: on admission, at 6 hours, and at 12 hours (some protocols also test at 24h). The 20WBCT can normalise then become positive again — venom from lymphatic depots can be absorbed over time. Never discharge a snakebite patient before completing the 24-hour serial monitoring.

The 20WBCT must be repeated at regular intervals (on admission, at 6h, and at 12h minimum) even if the initial test is normal, because VICC can be delayed. A non-clotting result at any serial measurement = ASV indication. The shift from normal to non-clotting is clinically significant and must be acted upon.

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Q6 IM21.9 1 pt

A 28-year-old woman presents with a jellyfish sting while swimming off the coast of Kerala. She has severe burning pain over the tentacle marks on her forearm and appears distressed. She is haemodynamically stable. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate immediate first-aid measure?

A Rub the tentacle marks vigorously with sand to remove nematocysts
B Apply hot water (45 degrees C) to the sting site for 20 minutes
C Soak the affected area in seawater and carefully remove visible tentacles without rubbing; apply vinegar if Box jellyfish
D Apply ice packs immediately to constrict the spread of venom

Correct. Jellyfish first aid: do NOT rub (rubbing fires undischarged nematocysts). Remove visible tentacles carefully without touching them directly (use a card or gloves). Rinse with seawater (NOT fresh water — hypotonic solution triggers nematocyst discharge). Vinegar (5% acetic acid) is recommended for Box jellyfish stings to inactivate nematocysts. Hot water immersion (45°C for 20 min) is the preferred analgesic measure for most jellyfish in Indian waters.

Jellyfish management: (1) Do NOT rub; (2) Remove tentacles carefully; (3) Rinse with seawater — NEVER fresh water (hypotonic water triggers nematocyst discharge); (4) Hot water immersion 45°C for 20 min for analgesia; (5) Vinegar for Box jellyfish to inactivate remaining nematocysts; (6) Analgesia (paracetamol/NSAIDs); (7) Watch for systemic features in large-area stings — rare but can include cardiac arrhythmias.

Jellyfish first aid: never rub (fires nematocysts). Remove tentacles without touching. Rinse with seawater (not fresh water). Vinegar for Box jellyfish. Hot water immersion (45°C, 20 min) is effective for pain relief for most Indian species. Ice packs are less effective for jellyfish venom pain.

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Q7 IM21.7 1 pt

A 10-year-old child from rural Rajasthan is bitten by a snake. On admission, his BP is 70/40 mmHg and HR is 140/min. His 20WBCT shows non-clotting blood and he has haemoglobinuria. He receives 10 vials of polyvalent ASV. The nurse asks you: at what rate and via what route should the ASV be administered?

A IV bolus of undiluted ASV over 5 minutes for fastest neutralisation
B IM injection in divided doses to reduce anaphylaxis risk
C Diluted in 100-200 mL of normal saline given as IV infusion over 1 hour with adrenaline ready
D Slow IV push over 30 minutes undiluted with antihistamine premedication

Correct. Polyvalent ASV is administered as an IV infusion (not IM — IM route is not recommended for Indian polyvalent ASV). Dilute in 100-200 mL of normal saline (or 5% dextrose) and infuse over 1 hour. Always have adrenaline drawn up and ready BEFORE starting the infusion. IM route has unreliable absorption and may be used only when IV access is impossible.

ASV administration: Dilute in 100-200 mL NS or 5% dextrose; infuse IV over 60 minutes; monitor continuously during infusion; have adrenaline 0.5 mg (1:1000) IM drawn up and ready before starting. Indian polyvalent ASV is not recommended IM. Dose in children is the SAME as adults — the amount of venom injected is independent of body weight.

ASV administration route and rate: IV infusion (never IM unless IV access impossible), diluted in 100-200 mL normal saline, given over 1 hour. Undiluted IV bolus increases the risk of anaphylaxis. Have adrenaline 0.5 mg IM drawn up and at the bedside BEFORE starting. Monitor the patient throughout the infusion.

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Q8 IM21.7 1 pt

A 50-year-old man with snakebite and VICC receives 10 vials of ASV. His 20WBCT normalises at 6 hours. However, his urine output falls and serum creatinine rises from 1.0 to 4.8 mg/dL over the next 24 hours. Which statement regarding this complication is MOST accurate?

A Rising creatinine after ASV indicates the antivenom was insufficient — give more vials
B This represents venom-induced AKI that requires supportive management; further ASV will not reverse established renal injury
C AKI after snakebite is exclusively due to haemoglobinuria and responds to urine alkalinisation
D Immediate dialysis is the only treatment; no other intervention is helpful

Correct. Once VICC has been neutralised (20WBCT normal), further ASV vials do not prevent or reverse established AKI. Venom-induced AKI in Russell's viper envenomation results from multiple mechanisms: VICC with microthrombi in glomerular capillaries, direct renal tubular toxicity, hypotension causing ischaemia, and haemoglobinuria. Management is supportive: IV fluids (if euvolaemic or hypovolaemic), strict input-output charting, and renal replacement therapy (dialysis) if oliguric AKI persists. Most cases are reversible with appropriate supportive care.

Post-ASV complications requiring supportive care: AKI (Russell's viper — most common cause of death in survivors; monitor creatinine, urine output; dialyse if needed), local necrosis (surgical review, secondary infection prophylaxis), residual coagulopathy (monitor until normalisation), neurological recovery (krait/cobra — may take weeks). ASV does not treat established organ damage.

After 20WBCT normalises, additional ASV is not indicated for AKI — ASV neutralises circulating venom; it does not repair established renal injury. AKI in Russell's viper envenomation is multifactorial (VICC, direct tubular toxicity, hypotension, haemoglobinuria) and requires supportive care. Dialysis may be needed but supportive measures and fluid management must be tried first.

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Q9 IM21.8 1 pt

A 6-year-old is stung by a scorpion. He develops Grade II envenomation: severe hypertension, cold sweaty extremities, bradycardia of 48/min, and pulmonary crackles. Which of the following is the SINGLE MOST dangerous drug to administer in this scenario?

A Prazosin orally
B Propranolol IV to control bradycardia and hypertension
C Dobutamine for incipient cardiogenic failure
D IV morphine for pain and anxiolysis

Correct. Propranolol is ABSOLUTELY CONTRAINDICATED in scorpion envenomation. The pathophysiology is massive catecholamine release causing combined alpha-1 vasoconstriction and beta-2 vasodilation. Beta-blockade with propranolol eliminates the beta-2 vasodilatory component, leaving unopposed alpha-1 vasoconstriction — this precipitates catastrophic hypertension and cardiovascular collapse. Prazosin (alpha-1 blocker) is the correct specific treatment for Grade II/III.

WHY beta-blockers are fatal in scorpion envenomation: Mesobuthus tamulus toxin causes massive ACh/noradrenaline release → alpha-1 (vasoconstriction) + beta-2 (vasodilation) + beta-1 (tachycardia/inotropy) effects. Propranolol blocks beta-1 + beta-2 → only alpha-1 left unopposed → severe hypertension + no beta-2 vasodilatory escape → acute pulmonary oedema + cardiogenic shock. This is the highest-yield fact in scorpion management.

Propranolol is the most dangerous drug in scorpion envenomation. Blocking beta-2 receptors while alpha-1 vasoconstriction remains unopposed causes fatal hypertension. The correct specific treatment is prazosin (alpha-1 blocker). If cardiogenic shock develops, dobutamine (beta-1 agonist, inotropic) is used — but the primary error to avoid is propranolol.

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Q10 IM21.2 1 pt

A medical team is conducting community education in a village where snakebites are common. Which of the following statements accurately represents the CURRENTLY RECOMMENDED evidence-based first aid for snakebite that should be taught to community members?

A Apply a tight tourniquet above the bite site to prevent venom spread and go to hospital
B Incise the bite wound and suck out venom, then apply local antiseptic
C Immobilise the bitten limb, remove constricting items, keep the limb below heart level, and transport rapidly to the nearest healthcare facility
D Apply electric shock to the bite site, then apply ice to reduce venom absorption

Correct. Evidence-based community first aid: Immobilise the limb (improvised splint if available), keep below heart level, remove rings/bangles/tight clothing from the bitten limb to allow for swelling, keep the patient calm (panic increases heart rate and lymphatic flow), and transport to the nearest healthcare facility as rapidly as possible. Do NOT incise, suck, tourniquet, apply electric shock, apply ice, or apply traditional herbal remedies.

The WHO and Indian National Guidelines for snakebite first aid: DO: immobilise, keep below heart level, remove jewellery/tight items, calm and reassure, transport immediately. DO NOT: tourniquet, incise/suck, apply electricity, herbal remedies, give food/water/alcohol, delay transport. For suspected neurotoxic bites, pressure immobilisation bandage (firm crepe from fingers/toes to axilla/groin) is used in Australia — evidence is limited in India but some centres recommend it for cobra/krait.

Evidence-based snakebite first aid: immobilise limb + keep below heart level + remove constricting items + calm patient + RAPID transport. ALL of these are harmful and contraindicated: tourniquet (compartment syndrome, no benefit), incision/suction (no benefit, introduces infection, delays transport), electric shock (no benefit, causes burns), ice (causes frostbite, delays transport).

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Q11 IM21.9 1 pt

A 38-year-old woman is brought in after multiple bee stings in her garden. She has urticaria, lip and tongue swelling, stridor, and her BP is 70/40 mmHg. What is the SINGLE MOST CRITICAL first intervention?

A IV hydrocortisone 200 mg to reduce the inflammatory response
B Adrenaline 0.5 mg IM into the anterolateral thigh
C IV chlorphenamine 10 mg for the urticaria and angioedema
D Establish IV access, give saline bolus 500 mL for hypotension

Correct. This is anaphylaxis (urticaria + angioedema + stridor + hypotension after bee sting). The only life-saving drug in anaphylaxis is adrenaline (epinephrine) 0.5 mg IM (1:1000 solution) into the anterolateral thigh. This must be given FIRST — before IV access, before antihistamines, before steroids. Corticosteroids and antihistamines take 30-60 minutes to act and do not reverse life-threatening anaphylaxis.

Anaphylaxis management sequence: 1) IM adrenaline 0.5 mg (adults) into anterolateral thigh — FIRST; 2) Call for help, lay patient flat, raise legs; 3) High-flow oxygen; 4) IV access + fluid bolus (500 mL NS); 5) Second dose of adrenaline if no improvement in 5-15 min; 6) IV chlorphenamine 10 mg + hydrocortisone 200 mg (adjuncts); 7) Salbutamol nebulisation if bronchospasm persists. Never use IV adrenaline outside cardiac arrest settings.

Anaphylaxis with stridor and hypotension is immediately life-threatening. Adrenaline IM is the ONLY first-line treatment — it works within minutes, reverses bronchospasm (beta-2), raises BP (alpha-1), and reduces mucosal oedema. Steroids take 30-60 minutes to act — they are adjuncts given AFTER adrenaline. IV fluids are also important but second to adrenaline.

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