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IM27.1-18 | Tuberculosis — Graded Quiz

Graded 12 questions · Untimed · 2 attempts

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Q1 IM27.14 1 pt

A 50-year-old farmer presents with 4 weeks of cough, low-grade fever, and haemoptysis. Chest X-ray shows a cavity in the right upper lobe with surrounding consolidation. CBNAAT on sputum returns: MTB detected; RIF resistance: not detected. Sputum AFB smear: 3+ positive. He weighs 58 kg and has no prior TB treatment. Which of the following NTEP drug combinations and duration is MOST appropriate?

A Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol daily for 2 months, then Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Ethambutol daily for 4 months (2HRZE/4HRE)
B Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol thrice weekly for 2 months, then Isoniazid + Rifampicin thrice weekly for 4 months
C Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol daily for 2 months, then Isoniazid + Rifampicin daily for 4 months (2HRZE/4HR)
D Bedaquiline + Pretomanid + Linezolid (BPaL) for 6 months as first-line for smear-positive disease

Correct. This is new (previously untreated) smear-positive pulmonary TB with DS-TB confirmed by CBNAAT (RIF sensitive). NTEP regimen: 2HRZE + 4HRE daily, weight-band FDC. Ethambutol is maintained throughout (not dropped in continuation phase). Thrice-weekly dosing is the obsolete RNTCP regimen. BPaL is reserved for pre-XDR/XDR-TB.

DS-TB = 2HRZE + 4HRE daily (total 6 months). Never drop ethambutol to HR in continuation phase under current NTEP. Thrice-weekly DOTS is obsolete. Weight-band FDC tablets — never prescribe individual drugs separately for routine DS-TB.

NTEP DS-TB regimen is 2HRZE + 4HRE — daily FDC, ethambutol included in both phases. The RNTCP thrice-weekly regimen is abolished. The continuation phase is HRE (not HR), because dropping ethambutol was an older modification. BPaL is for DR-TB.

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Q2 IM27.3 1 pt

A 38-year-old HIV-positive man (CD4 = 180 cells/mm3) on efavirenz-based ART develops confirmed pulmonary TB. Sputum CBNAAT: MTB detected, RIF sensitive. You plan to start ATT. Which of the following statements about managing this HIV-TB co-infection is MOST accurate?

A Start ATT first and defer ART by 6 months to avoid drug interactions
B Start ATT immediately; initiate ART within 2–8 weeks (or within 2 weeks if CD4 <50) and consider dose adjustment of efavirenz due to rifampicin induction
C Replace rifampicin with rifabutin in all HIV-TB co-infection to avoid all drug interactions
D Give a 4-drug regimen of HRZE daily for the full 9 months without a continuation phase change

Correct. NACO Treat-All policy: ATT is started first; ART is initiated within 2–8 weeks (within 2 weeks if CD4 <50 cells/mm3) to avoid severe Immune Reconstitution Inflammatory Syndrome (IRIS) while not deferring ART unnecessarily. Rifampicin induces CYP3A4/CYP2B6, reducing efavirenz levels — efavirenz dose may need to be increased to 800 mg in patients >60 kg, or dolutegravir-based ART may be preferred. Rifabutin is not routinely used in India's public sector.

HIV-TB: ATT first → ART within 2–8 weeks (or 2 weeks if CD4 <50); total ATT 6 months standard. Rifampicin-EFV interaction = CYP induction → consider dolutegravir-based ART (preferred under NACO) or increase EFV to 800 mg. Monitor for IRIS after ART initiation.

Deferring ART for 6 months is dangerous — it raises mortality. ART starts within 2–8 weeks of ATT initiation (2 weeks if CD4 <50). Rifampicin-efavirenz interaction requires dose adjustment or switching to dolutegravir. Rifabutin is a resource-limited option not standardly used in NTEP.

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Q3 IM27.10 1 pt

An AFB smear report on a sputum specimen reads: '1+ AFB seen (1–9 AFB per 100 oil immersion fields).' Which of the following BEST describes the correct interpretation and the next mandatory clinical action under NTEP?

A Smear-positive TB confirmed; start 2HRZE + 4HRE treatment without further testing
B Presumptive TB; CBNAAT must be performed on all smear-positive specimens as the first-line molecular confirmation under NTEP
C Smear-positive result is sufficient for diagnosis; molecular testing is only for retreatment cases
D Report is inconclusive; repeat two additional smears on the same day before deciding management

Correct. A 1+ AFB smear indicates 1–9 AFB per 100 oil immersion fields (Ziehl-Neelsen scale). Under NTEP 2020, CBNAAT (Xpert MTB/RIF) must be performed on all smear-positive specimens — not just retreatment cases. This confirms MTB species (since other mycobacteria can give AFB-positive smears) and simultaneously identifies rifampicin resistance. Starting ATT on smear positivity alone without CBNAAT is a departure from current NTEP protocol.

NTEP diagnostic hierarchy: CBNAAT first for all presumptive TB. If smear-positive and CBNAAT pending, do NOT start ATT until RIF sensitivity is confirmed. 1+ = 1–9 AFB/100 fields; 2+ = 10–99 AFB/100 fields; 3+ = ≥1 AFB/field. Grading guides infectiousness assessment.

Under NTEP, CBNAAT is mandatory on ALL sputum specimens — not just retreatment. A smear-positive result alone is insufficient to start treatment without CBNAAT confirmation of both MTB species and RIF sensitivity. This prevents missing RR-TB and treating non-tuberculous mycobacteria with ATT.

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Q4 IM27.14 1 pt

A 22-year-old student presents with 6 weeks of cervical lymphadenopathy. Lymph node biopsy shows caseating granulomas with Langhans giant cells. CBNAAT on a lymph node aspirate: MTB detected, RIF sensitive. Chest X-ray is normal. How should this case be classified and treated under NTEP?

A Extrapulmonary TB (lymph node); treat with 2HRZE + 4HRE for 6 months
B Extrapulmonary TB (lymph node); treat with 2HRZE + 10HRE for 12 months as all extrapulmonary TB requires extended treatment
C Pulmonary TB since TB lymphadenitis always implies haematogenous spread from the lungs
D Indeterminate; caseating granulomas are not specific for TB and full ATT should be deferred until culture confirmation

Correct. Lymph node TB is classified as extrapulmonary TB. Under NTEP, most forms of extrapulmonary TB (lymph node, pleural, abdominal, pericardial, genitourinary) are treated with the standard 6-month regimen: 2HRZE + 4HRE. The 12-month regimen (2HRZE + 10HRE) is reserved for CNS TB (meningitis, tuberculoma) and bone/joint TB. CBNAAT on the aspirate confirming MTB + RIF sensitive removes the need to wait for culture before starting ATT.

Extrapulmonary TB regimen rule: 6 months (2HRZE + 4HRE) for lymph node, pleural, pericardial, abdominal, genitourinary TB; 12 months (2HRZE + 10HRE) for CNS and bone/joint TB only. Classify as extrapulmonary — not pulmonary — when chest X-ray is normal.

NOT all extrapulmonary TB requires 12 months — only CNS TB and bone/joint TB. Lymph node TB = 6 months standard (2HRZE + 4HRE). Caseating granulomas on histology plus CBNAAT-confirmed MTB is diagnostic — deferring treatment awaiting culture is inappropriate.

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Q5 IM27.13 1 pt

A patient on ATT for 2 months develops jaundice, anorexia, and right upper quadrant discomfort. LFT: total bilirubin 4.2 mg/dL, ALT 320 U/L (8x ULN). He is otherwise clinically stable. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate immediate management?

A Continue ATT and add hepatoprotective agents; repeat LFT in 4 weeks
B Stop all ATT immediately; investigate to exclude other causes; reintroduce drugs sequentially once LFT normalises
C Continue ATT but replace isoniazid with levofloxacin as INH is the only hepatotoxic drug in ATT
D Stop pyrazinamide only; rifampicin and isoniazid can continue

Correct. This presentation is consistent with drug-induced liver injury (DILI) — the criteria (jaundice + ALT >5x ULN OR >3x ULN with symptoms) mandate stopping ALL ATT immediately. Isoniazid, rifampicin, and pyrazinamide are all potentially hepatotoxic; stopping pyrazinamide alone is insufficient. After LFT normalisation, drugs are reintroduced sequentially: rifampicin first, then isoniazid, then pyrazinamide (or pyrazinamide may be omitted if not tolerated). A non-hepatotoxic bridging regimen (streptomycin + ethambutol + fluoroquinolone) may be used during the washout period for severe TB.

ATT DILI thresholds for stopping ALL ATT: ALT >5x ULN (asymptomatic) OR ALT >3x ULN with symptoms or jaundice. All three hepatotoxic drugs (INH, RIF, PZA) stopped together. Sequential reintroduction order: RIF → INH → PZA. Bridging with S + E + FQ if ATT cannot be withheld.

All three hepatotoxic drugs (INH, RIF, PZA) must be stopped when ATT-DILI is suspected with jaundice and ALT >5x ULN. Stopping pyrazinamide alone or continuing with hepatoprotective agents is insufficient and dangerous. Sequential reintroduction after LFT normalisation is the standard approach.

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Q6 IM27.1 1 pt

India has the highest absolute number of TB cases globally. A medical student studying TB epidemiology asks: 'What is the single most important programmatic determinant of India's TB burden that distinguishes it from countries with low TB incidence?' Which answer BEST addresses this question?

A India has a more virulent strain of Mycobacterium tuberculosis than other countries
B The convergence of high population density, poverty-driven overcrowding, undernutrition, high HIV prevalence, and delayed diagnosis sustains India's transmission at scale despite a functional national programme
C BCG vaccination rates in India are lower than in countries with low TB incidence, driving higher disease burden
D India's climate (tropical) is the primary determinant of sustained TB transmission

Correct. India accounts for approximately 26% of the global TB burden (2.8 million new cases annually as of recent estimates). The epidemiological determinants are multifactorial: high population density and overcrowding facilitate airborne transmission; undernutrition impairs cellular immunity; high rates of undiagnosed or late-diagnosed TB sustain the infectious pool; HIV co-infection (though relatively lower in prevalence than sub-Saharan Africa) multiplicatively increases risk; poverty limits healthcare access. India does not have a more virulent strain, and BCG coverage is actually high.

India = 26% of global TB burden (highest absolute count). Key epidemiological drivers: poverty, overcrowding, undernutrition (TB and malnutrition co-epidemic), high prevalence of latent TB infection (40% estimated), delayed/missed diagnosis sustaining the infectious pool. Goal: TB elimination by 2025 (incidence <1/million).

India's TB burden is not driven by a more virulent strain or low BCG coverage (BCG coverage is ~90%+ in India). Climate is not the primary driver. The convergence of social determinants — overcrowding, undernutrition, poverty, delayed diagnosis — combined with a massive susceptible population sustains transmission.

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Q7 IM27.16 1 pt

A 55-year-old man completing his 6th month of ATT for pulmonary TB has end-of-treatment sputum culture results available. His last two monthly smears (months 5 and 6) were negative, and sputum culture at treatment completion is also negative. How should the outcome be recorded under NTEP?

A Cured — because bacteriological negativity (smear + culture) at treatment completion is confirmed
B Treatment completed — because culture results are not used in routine outcome recording under NTEP
C Treatment success — this is a composite that includes both cured and treatment-completed patients
D Defaulter — because the 6-month regimen indicates he was lost to follow-up at some point

Correct. Under NTEP (aligned with WHO definitions), 'Cured' is the outcome when a bacteriologically confirmed TB patient completes treatment AND has a negative bacteriological result (smear or culture) at the end of treatment AND on at least one previous occasion. 'Treatment completed' applies when the patient completes treatment but does NOT have a negative bacteriological result at the end of treatment (e.g., clinically confirmed TB without bacteriology, or bacteriology not performed). 'Treatment success' is the combined outcome of cured + treatment completed. This patient is specifically 'Cured'.

NTEP TB outcomes: Cured = bacteriologically confirmed case + negative smear/culture at end of treatment + on at least one prior occasion. Treatment completed = clinical case or bacteriology not done at end. Treatment failed = smear/culture positive at month 5 or later. Defaulter (lost to follow-up) = interrupted treatment ≥2 consecutive months.

Under NTEP, 'Cured' requires bacteriological confirmation at treatment end (smear or culture negative) in a bacteriologically confirmed case. 'Treatment completed' is used when bacteriology was not done at end of treatment. This patient has bacteriological negativity confirmed — the correct outcome is 'Cured', not merely 'Treatment completed'.

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Q8 IM27.16 1 pt

A 34-year-old man is referred with 'treatment failure' — his sputum smear remains 3+ positive at month 5 of ATT. He has been on the standard NTEP DS-TB regimen. Which of the following is the FIRST mandatory step in managing presumed treatment failure under NTEP?

A Add a fluoroquinolone to his current HRZE regimen empirically
B Stop all ATT and restart with a reinforced regimen of SHRZE for 3 months
C Collect sputum for CBNAAT to test for RIF resistance, followed by full DST/LPA; notify on Ni-kshay as presumptive DR-TB
D Immediately start Category II regimen (2SHRZE + 1HRZE + 5HRE) as per older RNTCP guidelines

Correct. Smear positivity at month 5 or later defines treatment failure. The NTEP approach to treatment failure is: (1) collect sputum for CBNAAT to confirm RIF resistance; (2) perform line probe assay (LPA) for full first-line DST; (3) notify as presumptive DR-TB on Ni-kshay; (4) refer to DR-TB centre. The RNTCP Category II regimen (SHRZE) is abolished under NTEP since it was creating streptomycin-resistant outcomes without addressing the underlying resistance. Empirical fluoroquinolone addition without DST is inappropriate.

Treatment failure (smear/culture positive at month 5 or later) → CBNAAT for RIF resistance + LPA for full DST + Ni-kshay notification as presumptive DR-TB + DR-TB centre referral. Category II regimen (SHRZE) is abolished under NTEP. Never add a single drug to a failing regimen.

Treatment failure at month 5 requires CBNAAT for RIF resistance and full DST — not empirical drug addition or the obsolete Category II regimen. The NTEP has eliminated Category II; all treatment failures are evaluated as presumptive DR-TB pending DST results.

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Q9 IM27.4 1 pt

Drug resistance in Mycobacterium tuberculosis to isoniazid is MOST commonly due to which molecular mechanism?

A Acquisition of transferable resistance plasmids from other bacteria
B Mutations in the katG gene (encoding catalase-peroxidase) that prevent INH activation, or mutations in inhA promoter reducing drug binding
C Efflux pump upregulation as the primary mechanism in clinical resistance
D Beta-lactamase production that inactivates isoniazid before it reaches its target

Correct. M. tuberculosis is a chromosomally resistant organism — it does NOT acquire resistance via transferable plasmids. Isoniazid is a prodrug that requires activation by katG (catalase-peroxidase). The most common mechanism of INH resistance is mutation in katG (particularly Ser315Thr) that reduces drug activation. Mutations in the inhA promoter region (the INH target, enoyl-ACP reductase) also confer resistance, typically at lower levels. Efflux pumps play a minor role in clinical resistance. Beta-lactamase does not inactivate INH.

DR-TB molecular mechanisms: INH resistance = katG (prevents activation) + inhA promoter; RIF resistance = rpoB; PZA resistance = pncA; EMB resistance = embB; FQ resistance = gyrA/gyrB. All chromosomal — no horizontal transfer. LPA (line probe assay) detects katG + inhA + rpoB mutations directly from sputum.

M. tuberculosis does NOT use plasmid-mediated resistance. INH resistance = chromosomal mutation in katG (prevents drug activation) or inhA promoter (alters target). Efflux pumps are a minor mechanism. RIF resistance = rpoB mutations. PZA resistance = pncA mutations. PZA resistance is the key driver of XDR-TB complexity.

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Q10 IM27.14 1 pt

A 25-year-old pregnant woman (28 weeks gestation) is diagnosed with pulmonary DS-TB confirmed by CBNAAT. Which of the following ATT modifications is MOST appropriate during pregnancy?

A Defer all ATT until after delivery to protect the fetus
B Start standard 2HRZE + 4HRE; avoid streptomycin (ototoxic to fetus); pyridoxine supplementation with INH
C Replace rifampicin with ethambutol to avoid hepatotoxicity in pregnancy
D Omit pyrazinamide and use 2HRE + 7HR to avoid teratogenicity

Correct. Active TB in pregnancy is an emergency — deferring ATT is more dangerous than treating. The standard regimen (2HRZE + 4HRE) is used in pregnancy. Streptomycin (an aminoglycoside) is the only first-line ATT drug absolutely contraindicated in pregnancy due to fetal ototoxicity (VIII nerve damage). Pyridoxine (vitamin B6) supplementation is co-administered with isoniazid to reduce peripheral neuropathy risk, which is heightened in pregnancy. Rifampicin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol are all used in pregnancy.

TB in pregnancy: treat immediately — the risk of untreated TB far exceeds drug risk. Use standard 2HRZE + 4HRE. Contraindicated: streptomycin (fetal VIII nerve damage). Add pyridoxine with INH. All four first-line drugs are WHO-approved for use in pregnancy. Screen for gestational diabetes (DM-TB-pregnancy triple burden).

Deferring ATT in pregnancy risks maternal and fetal mortality from untreated TB. Standard 2HRZE + 4HRE is used in pregnancy. The only absolute contraindication is streptomycin (fetal ototoxicity). Pyridoxine supplementation with INH is essential. Pyrazinamide is safe in pregnancy.

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Q11 IM27.12 1 pt

A BCG-vaccinated 6-week-old infant develops a generalised lymphadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly, and bilateral pulmonary infiltrates on chest X-ray suggestive of miliary pattern. CBNAAT on gastric aspirate: MTB detected, RIF sensitive. This presentation is MOST consistent with which BCG complication?

A Normal BCG response; all infants develop miliary infiltrates post-vaccination
B BCG-itis with local abscess formation at the injection site
C Disseminated BCG disease (BCGosis) — a rare complication typically seen in immunodeficient infants (e.g., severe combined immunodeficiency)
D Paradoxical worsening from immune reconstitution; the infant has latent TB independent of BCG

Correct. Disseminated BCG disease (BCGosis) is a rare but life-threatening complication of BCG vaccination occurring almost exclusively in severely immunodeficient infants (severe combined immunodeficiency, DiGeorge syndrome, CGD, or HIV-exposed unimmunised infants with primary immunodeficiency). BCG is a live attenuated vaccine — in immunocompetent hosts, it causes only local reactions (injection site papule → pustule → scar) or, rarely, regional lymphadenopathy. Miliary pattern + hepatosplenomegaly + BCG vaccination history = BCGosis until proven otherwise. Management: ATT (HRZ, not cycloserine unless fully drug-resistant) and evaluation for primary immunodeficiency.

BCG complications (ascending severity): local ulcer (common), BCG-itis/local abscess (uncommon — treat with INH), regional lymphadenopathy (uncommon — usually self-limiting), BCGosis (rare — disseminated, implies severe immunodeficiency, treat with ATT). Never give BCG to known immunodeficient individuals or HIV-exposed infants with symptoms.

BCGosis (disseminated BCG disease) is a rare complication of BCG vaccination occurring in immunocompromised infants. It is not a normal response. BCG-itis causes local abscess at the injection site — not miliary dissemination. This clinical picture requires immediate evaluation for primary immunodeficiency and ATT.

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Q12 IM27.15 1 pt

A physician is counselling a newly diagnosed sputum smear-positive pulmonary TB patient. The patient says: 'My wife is 8 months pregnant. Should she take any medicines to prevent TB?' The wife has no symptoms; Mantoux test: 14 mm; chest X-ray: normal. Which approach is MOST appropriate for the pregnant wife?

A Start full 2HRZE + 4HRE ATT in the wife immediately as her Mantoux is positive
B Active TB excluded; defer isoniazid preventive therapy (IPT) until after delivery, then give INH 300 mg/day for 6 months
C No action needed; the wife's positive Mantoux is likely due to BCG vaccination and requires no treatment
D Start rifampicin + isoniazid for 3 months as shorter prophylaxis reduces fetal drug exposure

Correct. The wife has latent TB infection (positive Mantoux, active TB excluded) as a household contact of a smear-positive index case. She is eligible for isoniazid preventive therapy (IPT: INH 300 mg/day for 6 months). However, INH prophylaxis in pregnancy carries a risk of INH-induced hepatotoxicity in the perinatal period. The standard recommendation is to defer IPT until after delivery and the immediate postpartum period, then administer INH 300 mg/day for 6 months with pyridoxine supplementation. Full ATT (2HRZE + 4HRE) is only for active disease.

Pregnant contact with positive Mantoux and no active TB: defer IPT until postpartum (perinatal INH hepatotoxicity concern). After delivery: INH 300 mg/day + pyridoxine for 6 months. Rule of thumb: treat latent TB contacts with IPT, but time initiation to minimise maternal risk.

This is latent TB — full ATT is not indicated. The correct approach is IPT (INH 300 mg/day × 6 months), but deferred until after delivery due to perinatal hepatotoxicity risk of INH. A positive Mantoux of 14 mm in a household contact is significant and cannot be dismissed as BCG effect alone.

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