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OG16.1-3 | Third Stage Complications — Graded Quiz

Graded 12 questions · Untimed · 2 attempts

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Q1 OG16.1 1 pt

A 28-year-old G3P2 delivered vaginally 20 minutes ago. She has now bled 800 mL and her uterus is soft and boggy despite fundal massage. Her BP is 90/60 mmHg and pulse is 118/min. Oxytocin 10 IU IM was given at delivery. What is the most appropriate NEXT step in pharmacological management?

A Give a repeat dose of oxytocin 10 IU IM
B Administer ergometrine 0.5 mg IM
C Administer misoprostol 800 mcg sublingually and start oxytocin IV infusion
D Proceed directly to intrauterine balloon tamponade without further uterotonic therapy

Correct. This is PPH with atony unresponsive to first-line IM oxytocin. The next step is second-line uterotonic therapy: misoprostol 800 mcg sublingually (fast absorption) plus oxytocin IV infusion (20–40 IU in 500 mL at 60 drops/min) for sustained uterotonic effect, concurrent with resuscitation.

PPH escalation: first-line IM oxytocin → second-line IV oxytocin infusion + misoprostol → third-line carboprost or ergometrine (check contraindications) → surgical/interventional.

After first-line IM oxytocin fails, escalate to second-line uterotonics: IV oxytocin infusion plus misoprostol. Ergometrine should be checked for contraindications first (hypertension). Balloon tamponade is third-line when uterotonics fail.

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Q2 OG16.1 1 pt

A 32-year-old with a known history of well-controlled bronchial asthma on inhaled corticosteroids delivers vaginally and develops PPH due to uterine atony. Oxytocin infusion and misoprostol have been given but haemorrhage continues. Which drug should be AVOIDED in this patient?

A Ergometrine 0.5 mg IM
B Tranexamic acid 1 g IV over 10 minutes
C Carboprost 0.25 mg IM
D Balloon tamponade with 300 mL saline fill

Correct. Carboprost (15-methyl PGF2α) is absolutely contraindicated in asthma because it causes bronchoconstriction via PGF2α receptors in bronchial smooth muscle, potentially precipitating a life-threatening bronchospasm. Ergometrine is a valid choice here as there is no hypertension documented.

Carboprost (PGF2α): contraindicated in asthma and active cardiac/pulmonary disease. Ergometrine: contraindicated in hypertension, cardiac disease. Know both; examination often tests asthma-carboprost and HTN-ergometrine pairs.

Carboprost is the drug to avoid in asthma — its prostaglandin F2α mechanism causes bronchoconstriction. Ergometrine is safe in normotensive patients. Tranexamic acid and balloon tamponade have no bronchoconstrictor effect.

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Q3 OG16.1 1 pt

A woman undergoes caesarean section for obstructed labour. Estimated blood loss is 1400 mL. Laboratory results: Hb 7.2 g/dL, platelets 68,000/mm³, PT 24 seconds, APTT 58 seconds, fibrinogen 1.0 g/L. Which blood component is most urgently indicated?

A Packed red blood cells only
B Fresh frozen plasma (FFP)
C Cryoprecipitate
D Packed red blood cells + fresh frozen plasma + platelets (massive transfusion protocol)

Correct. This is disseminated intravascular coagulopathy (DIC) complicating obstetric haemorrhage: thrombocytopenia, prolonged PT/APTT, and low fibrinogen. Massive transfusion protocol (1:1:1 — packed RBC:FFP:platelets) addresses all three deficits simultaneously. Cryoprecipitate would specifically replenish fibrinogen but cannot address all components alone.

Obstetric DIC requires component therapy: RBC (oxygen-carrying) + FFP (coagulation factors) + platelets. Target: Hb ≥8, platelets ≥50,000, PT/APTT <1.5×normal, fibrinogen ≥2 g/L in active PPH.

The coagulation profile shows DIC: low platelets, prolonged clotting times, low fibrinogen. All three components are depleted, requiring a massive transfusion protocol (1:1:1 ratio). Transfusing RBCs alone risks dilutional coagulopathy.

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Q4 OG16.1 1 pt

The shock index (SI) is used in PPH to estimate haemodynamic compromise. A patient with heart rate 120/min and systolic BP 90 mmHg has a shock index of 1.33. Which class of haemorrhagic shock does this best correspond to?

A Class I (compensated, minimal risk)
B Class II (mild, tachycardia, normal BP)
C Class III (moderate, hypotension present, >30% blood volume loss)
D Haemorrhage index only measures haematocrit, not haemodynamic class

Correct. Shock index = HR/systolic BP. SI ≥1.0 is abnormal; SI ≥1.5 indicates severe compromise. SI of 1.33 (HR 120, sBP 90) corresponds to Class III shock (>30% blood volume loss, hypotension, significant tachycardia). Immediate resuscitation and surgical escalation are warranted.

Shock Index = HR ÷ systolic BP. SI ≥1.0 = significant haemodynamic compromise. Class III shock: 30-40% blood volume loss, BP falling, tachycardia. Use shock index alongside clinical signs; it is a more sensitive early warning tool than BP alone.

Shock index (HR/systolic BP): normal <0.9; 0.9–1.0 borderline; ≥1.0 significant; ≥1.5 severe. SI of 1.33 with hypotension maps to Class III haemorrhagic shock — this is haemodynamic emergency requiring immediate intervention.

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Q5 OG16.2 1 pt

A patient with atonic PPH has received maximum uterotonic therapy (oxytocin infusion, misoprostol, carboprost). Bimanual compression has partially controlled bleeding. An intrauterine Bakri balloon is inflated to 300 mL; bleeding notably decreases to a trickle. What does this indicate and what is the most appropriate next action?

A Negative tamponade test — proceed to immediate exploratory laparotomy
B Positive tamponade test — observe with balloon in situ, plan for gradual deflation at 24 hours
C Positive tamponade test — remove balloon immediately and give IV tranexamic acid
D Inconclusive test — inflate balloon to 500 mL and reassess

Correct. Bleeding decreasing to a trickle after balloon inflation is a positive tamponade test, indicating hydrostatic pressure is controlling haemorrhage. Management: leave balloon in situ for up to 24 hours with antibiotics, monitor closely, then slowly deflate (not sudden removal) to assess for re-bleeding.

Tamponade test: positive = bleeding controlled by balloon → leave 24h with monitoring + antibiotics → gradual deflation. Negative = bleeding continues despite balloon → surgical escalation (B-Lynch, devascularisation, hysterectomy).

A positive tamponade test (bleeding controlled by balloon) allows conservative management — the balloon can be left 24 hours. Gradual deflation at 24 hours (not sudden removal) tests for durable haemostasis. Only proceed to surgery if the test is negative (bleeding persists with balloon inflated).

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Q6 OG16.2 1 pt

A woman is being transferred from a primary health centre to a district hospital for PPH with haemodynamic instability (BP 70/40, HR 140). The Non-Pneumatic Anti-Shock Garment (NASG) is available. Which statement about the NASG is most accurate?

A It requires inflation with an air pump and is difficult to apply in field conditions
B It is primarily designed for postoperative wound compression
C It applies circumferential compression to the lower body, increasing central blood volume, and can be applied by non-specialist staff during transfer
D It should only be used after blood transfusion has been initiated

Correct. The NASG is a non-pneumatic (no pump required) neoprene garment applied to lower limbs and abdomen. It auto-transfuses ~500–1000 mL of blood centrally, raises BP, and supports cardiac output. Key advantage: can be applied by auxiliary nurse-midwives or paramedics during transfer, before reaching a blood bank.

NASG: non-pneumatic, neoprene lower-body compression garment. Increases central perfusion by ~500-1000 mL autotransfusion. Applied foot-to-navel; no specialist skill required. Key in resource-limited, pre-referral settings for haemorrhagic shock.

NASG is non-pneumatic (no pump), applied from feet upward to the lower abdomen with velcro panels. It does not require blood to be infused first — it works by redistribution of existing blood volume. Its simplicity makes it ideal for first-responder use in resource-limited settings.

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Q7 OG16.3 1 pt

A midwife reports that immediately after delivery of the placenta, the patient suddenly collapsed. On examination: a firm, smooth, red mass is visible beyond the vaginal introitus, there is no fundus palpable abdominally, and the patient has bradycardia despite severe blood loss. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A Prolapsed fibroid polyp
B Complete uterine inversion (Grade 3)
C Retained placenta with cord avulsion
D Uterine rupture with prolapse of bowel through cervix

Correct. This is classic acute complete (Grade 3) uterine inversion: a firm red mass beyond the introitus (the inverted fundus), absent uterine fundus on abdominal palpation, and vasovagal bradycardia (triggered by traction on uterine ligaments). The immediate cardiovascular collapse without initial massive haemorrhage is characteristic.

Uterine inversion clinical triad: smooth red mass at/beyond introitus + absent fundus abdominally + vasovagal shock (bradycardia). Shock is partly neurogenic (vagal), partly haemorrhagic. Grade 3 = fundus beyond introitus.

Uterine inversion triad: (1) mass at or beyond introitus, (2) absent uterine fundus on abdominal exam, (3) vasovagal shock (bradycardia, hypotension disproportionate to visible bleeding). Grade 3 = fundus beyond introitus. Vagal shock occurs because the inversion stretches the broad ligament nerve supply.

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Q8 OG16.3 1 pt

During manual reduction of acute uterine inversion (Johnson manoeuvre), the placenta is still attached to the fundus. The initial attempts at reduction fail. Which tocolytic is most appropriate to relax the cervical ring and facilitate reduction?

A Oxytocin 10 IU IV bolus
B Ergometrine 0.5 mg IM
C Intravenous glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) or magnesium sulphate as tocolytic
D Ketamine 1 mg/kg IV for sedation only, then resume reduction without tocolysis

Correct. When manual reduction is difficult, uterine relaxation with a tocolytic is required to relax the retracted cervical ring. Options include: IV nitroglycerine (GTN) 200–500 mcg bolus, IV terbutaline, or IV magnesium sulphate. Do NOT give uterotonics (oxytocin, ergometrine) before reduction — they tighten the cervical ring.

Johnson manoeuvre: cup the fundus in the palm, apply steady upward pressure through the cervix. If the cervical ring is tight, give tocolysis (GTN/terbutaline/MgSO4) BEFORE attempting further reduction. NEVER give oxytocin/ergometrine until reduction is complete.

Tocolysis is required before difficult reduction: GTN (nitroglycerine), terbutaline, or MgSO4 relax the cervical ring. Oxytocin and ergometrine are uterotonics that worsen cervical contraction and make reduction impossible. Uterotonics are given AFTER successful reduction.

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Q9 OG16.3 1 pt

After successful manual reduction of uterine inversion (Johnson manoeuvre), what is the immediately correct next step in management?

A Remove the placenta (if attached) and observe without giving uterotonics for 30 minutes
B Give oxytocin IV infusion to restore uterine tone immediately after reduction
C Administer IV tocolytic for 2 hours post-reduction to prevent re-inversion
D Proceed immediately to exploratory laparotomy to repair the broad ligament

Correct. After successful reduction, the uterotonic (oxytocin IV infusion) is immediately given to promote contraction and prevent re-inversion. This is the critical reversal: tocolytic before/during reduction → uterotonic immediately after. Continued tocolysis post-reduction prevents the uterus from forming the protective contraction that holds it in place.

Post-reduction sequence: (1) oxytocin IV infusion immediately (prevents re-inversion), (2) then remove placenta once uterus is contracted, (3) then IV antibiotics, (4) haemodynamic monitoring. Reverse from tocolytic → uterotonic as soon as fundus is repositioned.

Sequence after reduction: IMMEDIATELY give oxytocin IV infusion to promote sustained uterine contraction and prevent re-inversion. Do NOT continue tocolysis after reduction. Remove the placenta only after the uterus is well-contracted. Exploratory laparotomy is only needed for Huntington or Haultain procedures if manual reduction failed.

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Q10 OG16.1 1 pt

A primigravida at 38 weeks delivered vaginally. AMTSL was performed with oxytocin 10 IU IM. The placenta was delivered after 30 minutes but is incomplete on inspection with a missing cotyledon. Despite bimanual exploration, the remaining cotyledon cannot be removed. The uterus is firm but bleeding continues at 500 mL. Which of the 4 Ts best explains this PPH, and what is the definitive management?

A Tone — bimanual compression + misoprostol
B Trauma — examine vagina and cervix for lacerations under good lighting
C Tissue — manual/surgical removal of retained placental fragment under anaesthesia
D Thrombin — fresh frozen plasma and cryoprecipitate

Correct. A missing cotyledon with a firm uterus and continued bleeding is Tissue PPH (retained placenta). The uterus cannot fully contract with a retained fragment occupying the cavity. Definitive management is manual/surgical removal under adequate analgesia or anaesthesia, followed by IV oxytocin infusion.

Retained placenta/fragment (Tissue PPH): uterus may feel firm but bleeding persists because the retained tissue prevents full cavity closure. Must be manually/surgically removed. Do not confuse with atony (soft boggy uterus = Tone PPH).

Retained placental fragment = Tissue (T) PPH. The missing cotyledon prevents complete uterine contraction. The uterus may feel firm over the placental tissue but cannot achieve haemostatic closure. Definitive treatment is removal (manual exploration or curettage under anaesthesia).

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Q11 OG16.2 1 pt

An obstetrician is teaching a junior resident how to assemble an improvised intrauterine balloon for resource-limited settings where a commercial Bakri balloon is unavailable. Which of the following correctly describes the improvised condom catheter device?

A A Foley catheter with a condom tied over the balloon port, inflated with air
B A male condom tied over the tip of a rubber or Foley catheter, inserted into the uterine cavity and inflated with normal saline via the catheter lumen
C A female condom placed in the vagina and inflated with blood to tamponade the cervix
D A surgical glove finger attached to a nasogastric tube and filled with air to 200 mL

Correct. The condom catheter balloon: a male condom is tied securely around the tip of a rubber catheter (or Foley). It is inserted into the uterine cavity and inflated with 250–500 mL of normal saline via a large syringe through the catheter lumen. The inflated condom exerts hydrostatic pressure on the placental bed.

Improvised condom catheter balloon: male condom tied to catheter tip, inserted into uterine cavity, inflated with 250-500 mL normal saline. Evidence-based alternative to commercial balloons in resource-limited settings. Competency in assembly and insertion is an NMC OG16.2 skill requirement.

Condom catheter balloon: male condom + rubber/Foley catheter → insert into uterine cavity → inflate with 250-500 mL normal saline. Cost <₹10 vs commercial Bakri (₹15,000+). Equally effective for atonic PPH in studies from sub-Saharan Africa and South Asia.

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Q12 OG16.3 1 pt

A woman presents 6 days after a home delivery conducted by a traditional birth attendant. She has a reddish-pink mass protruding from the vagina, is haemodynamically stable, and has no acute peritoneal signs. Manual reduction attempts in the emergency department are unsuccessful due to a rigid, thickened cervical ring. What is the most appropriate surgical approach?

A Huntington procedure (upward traction on round ligaments via laparotomy)
B Haultain procedure (posterior colpotomy incision to release the cervical ring)
C Emergency hysterectomy as the uterus cannot be salvaged after 6 days
D Repeat IV tocolysis for 24 hours, then reattempt manual reduction

Correct. This is subacute uterine inversion (>24 hours but <4 weeks) with a thickened fibrous cervical ring. The Huntington procedure (laparotomy: Allis forceps on the round ligaments with upward traction while the vaginal operator pushes the fundus up) is the first-choice surgical approach. Haultain procedure (posterior cervical ring incision) is used when the Huntington procedure fails.

Surgical reduction options: (1) Huntington procedure (abdominal — Allis clamps on round ligaments, upward traction with vaginal push) → first choice. (2) Haultain procedure (abdominal + posterior cervical incision) → when Huntington fails. Hysterectomy only as last resort — uterine conservation is strongly preferred.

Subacute inversion with rigid cervical ring: surgical reduction is indicated. Huntington procedure (laparotomy, upward traction on round ligaments) is first-choice. Haultain (posterior colpotomy) is used if Huntington fails. Hysterectomy is a last resort. Tocolysis alone is insufficient for a fibrosed ring.

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