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OR1.1-6 | Skeletal Trauma and Polytrauma Principles — Practice Quiz

Practice 8 questions · Untimed · Unlimited attempts

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Q1 OR1.1 1 pt

A 28-year-old motorcyclist is brought to the emergency room following a road traffic accident. On assessment: airway is patent with gurgling sounds, respiratory rate is 28/min, pulse is 118/min and feeble, GCS is 12/15, and he has an open femoral fracture with active bleeding. According to ATLS principles, what is the first priority in managing this patient?

A Control the femoral haemorrhage with a tourniquet
B Secure the airway with cervical spine control
C Obtain IV access and start fluid resuscitation
D Perform secondary survey to detect all injuries

Correct. ATLS primary survey begins with A (Airway with C-spine control), then B (Breathing), C (Circulation with haemorrhage control), D (Disability), and E (Exposure). The gurgling sounds indicate partial airway obstruction requiring immediate attention.

In ATLS, the primary survey follows the ABCDE sequence. Airway (with cervical spine control) is always the first priority regardless of other injuries, as airway obstruction causes death within minutes.

In ATLS, Airway management with C-spine control is always the first priority. Even active haemorrhage is addressed under 'C' — only after the airway is secured.

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Q2 OR1.1 1 pt

During mass-casualty triage following a building collapse, a victim has absent radial pulses, respiratory rate of 36/min, and is unresponsive to verbal commands. According to START triage, this victim is categorised as:

A Green (Minor)
B Yellow (Delayed)
C Red (Immediate)
D Black (Expectant)

Correct. In START triage, absent radial pulse combined with altered consciousness and very high RR indicates a non-salvageable patient in a mass-casualty event — categorised Black (Expectant) to preserve resources for salvageable victims.

In START triage, a victim with absent radial pulse (no perfusion), RR >30/min, or failure to follow commands is categorised as Red (Immediate). However, absent breathing after airway repositioning or absent pulse indicates Black (Expectant/Dead) in a mass-casualty setting.

With absent radial pulses, RR of 36/min, and unresponsiveness to verbal commands, this patient meets criteria for Black (Expectant) in START mass-casualty triage — resource diversion to salvageable patients is the principle.

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Q3 OR1.2 1 pt

A 35-year-old man is brought to casualty 30 minutes after a road traffic accident. His BP is 80/50 mmHg, pulse is 136/min, respiratory rate is 24/min, skin is pale and clammy, GCS is 14/15, and urine output is 12 mL/hour. He has a closed femoral shaft fracture. What class of haemorrhagic shock does this patient fall under?

A Class I (up to 15% blood loss)
B Class II (15–30% blood loss)
C Class III (30–40% blood loss)
D Class IV (>40% blood loss)

Correct. Class III shock: HR >120/min, BP decreased (systolic ~70–100 mmHg), RR 30–40/min, urine output 5–15 mL/hr, and altered mental status. A closed femoral fracture can lose 1.0–1.5 L of blood into the thigh.

ATLS classifies haemorrhagic shock into four classes. Class III (30–40% blood loss) presents with BP 70–100 mmHg systolic, pulse 120–140/min, RR 30–40/min, urine output 5–15 mL/hr, and confusion — matching this patient's parameters.

This patient's HR 136, BP 80/50, UO 12 mL/hr, and clammy skin indicate Class III haemorrhagic shock (30–40% blood loss). Remember a closed femoral fracture alone can cause 1–1.5 L of internal haemorrhage.

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Q4 OR1.3 1 pt

A 22-year-old patient sustains an open tibial fracture in a road traffic accident. On examination, the wound is 3 cm, the periosteum is intact, there is no arterial injury, but there is extensive soft tissue contamination. According to Gustilo-Anderson classification, this fracture is:

A Type I
B Type II
C Type IIIA
D Type IIIB

Correct. Gustilo-Anderson IIIB: wound >1 cm (or any size with extensive soft tissue damage), significant contamination, periosteal stripping/bone exposure, but NO arterial injury. Soft tissue coverage requires local or free flap.

Gustilo-Anderson Type IIIB is characterised by extensive soft tissue damage, periosteal stripping, and bone exposed with contamination, but no arterial injury. Type IIIC uniquely involves arterial injury requiring repair. Type II has a wound >1 cm with minimal soft tissue damage.

A 3 cm wound with extensive contamination but intact vasculature is Gustilo-Anderson Type IIIB. Remember: IIIC = arterial injury requiring repair; IIIA = adequate soft tissue coverage despite high energy; IIIB = inadequate soft tissue, requires flap coverage.

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Q5 OR1.3 1 pt

A 40-year-old construction worker presents with a swollen, tense forearm following a crush injury. He has excruciating pain on passive extension of the fingers. Distal pulse is present and normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate management?

A Observe and reassess in 6 hours as distal pulse is present
B Apply a below-elbow plaster cast and elevate the limb
C Measure compartment pressure; if ΔP <30 mmHg, perform urgent fasciotomy
D Administer analgesia and observe for pulse changes

Correct. Acute compartment syndrome is a surgical emergency. The presence of a distal pulse does NOT exclude compartment syndrome — pulses are often preserved until very late. Pain on passive stretch is the earliest and most sensitive clinical sign. Fasciotomy should not be delayed.

Acute compartment syndrome diagnosis is clinical: pain out of proportion, pain on passive stretch, tense compartment. The threshold for fasciotomy is a compartment pressure within 30 mmHg of diastolic BP (ΔP <30 mmHg). Pulses are often PRESENT in compartment syndrome — waiting for pulse loss causes irreversible ischaemia.

Key OR known-trap: distal pulses are often PRESENT in acute compartment syndrome. Pain on passive stretch of fingers is the hallmark. Waiting for pulse loss leads to irreversible Volkmann's ischaemic contracture. Urgent fasciotomy is indicated when ΔP <30 mmHg.

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Q6 OR1.4 1 pt

A 25-year-old rugby player falls onto an outstretched arm. Examination reveals the shoulder held in slight abduction and external rotation with a visible fullness anteriorly and loss of the deltoid contour. He is unable to touch the opposite shoulder. Which nerve is most commonly injured in this dislocation?

A Musculocutaneous nerve
B Radial nerve
C Axillary nerve
D Brachial plexus (upper trunk)

Correct. Anterior shoulder dislocation most commonly injures the axillary nerve. Test: sensation over the 'regimental badge area' (lateral deltoid) and deltoid muscle contraction. Always document neurovascular status before reduction.

Anterior shoulder dislocation is the most common joint dislocation (95% of shoulder dislocations). The axillary nerve (C5, C6) is the most commonly injured nerve, causing deltoid weakness and a patch of anaesthesia over the 'regimental badge area' (lateral arm). This must be tested and documented before reduction.

OR known-trap: shoulder dislocation → axillary nerve injury. The axillary nerve winds around the surgical neck of humerus and is vulnerable to traction/compression in anterior dislocation.

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Q7 OR1.4 1 pt

A 55-year-old patient involved in a dashboard injury presents with the right lower limb in a posture of flexion, adduction, and internal rotation at the hip. There is shortening of the limb. Which structure is at greatest risk of injury in this dislocation?

A Femoral nerve
B Obturator nerve
C Sciatic nerve
D Common femoral artery

Correct. Posterior hip dislocation puts the sciatic nerve (particularly its common peroneal component) at risk. Clinically: foot drop (weak dorsiflexion and eversion), sensory loss on dorsum of foot. Reduction should occur within 6 hours to reduce AVN risk.

Posterior hip dislocation classically results from dashboard injury — knee hits dashboard, force transmitted along femoral shaft. The sciatic nerve (especially the common peroneal division) is at risk, producing foot drop. Avascular necrosis of the femoral head is a late complication if reduction is delayed beyond 6 hours.

OR known-trap: posterior hip dislocation → sciatic nerve injury → foot drop. The posture of flexion, adduction, internal rotation with shortening is pathognomonic of posterior hip dislocation.

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Q8 OR1.6 1 pt

A 30-year-old cyclist undergoes emergency fasciotomy for compartment syndrome. Post-operatively, the surgical team plans definitive wound management. Which of the following represents a recent advance that has significantly improved outcomes in open fracture management?

A Delayed primary closure after 5–7 days with wet-to-dry dressings
B Negative Pressure Wound Therapy (VAC therapy) as a bridge to definitive closure
C Immediate split-skin grafting at the time of fasciotomy
D Application of plaster of Paris for immobilisation and wound protection

Correct. Negative Pressure Wound Therapy (NPWT/VAC) is a major recent advance in open fracture and post-fasciotomy wound management. It promotes healing, reduces bacterial colonisation, and simplifies wound care between debridements.

Negative Pressure Wound Therapy (NPWT/VAC therapy) is a key recent advance that bridges temporary wound closure after fasciotomy or debridement and definitive flap reconstruction. It reduces bacterial load, promotes granulation tissue, reduces oedema, and decreases the need for primary flaps in open fractures.

VAC/NPWT therapy is a key recent advance (OR1.6) in open fracture and compartment syndrome aftercare. It is now preferred over conventional wet-to-dry dressings for temporary wound management after debridement.

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