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OR6.1 | Degenerative Spine Disorders — Practice Quiz

Practice 8 questions · Untimed · Unlimited attempts

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Q1 OR6.1 1 pt

A 45-year-old construction worker presents with low back pain radiating down the right leg to the foot, worse on coughing and straining. Straight leg raise (SLR) is positive at 40° on the right. Neurological examination reveals weakness of right great toe dorsiflexion and numbness over the dorsum of the right foot. Which nerve root is most likely compressed?

A L3 nerve root
B L4 nerve root
C L5 nerve root
D S1 nerve root

Correct. L5 root compression (typically by L4–L5 disc) causes weakness of extensor hallucis longus, foot drop, and sensory loss over the dorsum of the foot and first web space.

L4–L5 disc prolapse compresses the L5 nerve root causing weakness of extensor hallucis longus (great toe dorsiflexion) and sensory loss over the dorsum of the foot and first web space. L5 dermatome covers the dorsum of the foot and big toe.

Recall the L4–L5–S1 dermatomes: L4 covers the medial leg and foot; L5 covers the dorsum of the foot/big toe and first web space; S1 covers the lateral foot, sole, and little toe. Weakness of great toe dorsiflexion points to L5.

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Q2 OR6.1 1 pt

A 38-year-old software engineer presents with sudden onset low back pain after lifting a heavy object. He now has bilateral leg weakness, inability to void urine, and saddle anaesthesia (numbness in the perineum, inner thighs, and perianal region). The most appropriate next step in management is:

A Oral NSAIDs and bed rest for 2 weeks
B Lumbar X-ray and physiotherapy referral
C Urgent MRI lumbar spine and emergency surgical decompression
D Epidural steroid injection and re-evaluate in 4 weeks

Correct. Cauda equina syndrome (saddle anaesthesia + bladder/bowel dysfunction + bilateral weakness) is a surgical emergency. Urgent MRI confirms the diagnosis and emergency decompression should follow without delay.

Saddle anaesthesia, bilateral leg weakness, and bladder/bowel dysfunction together constitute cauda equina syndrome — a surgical emergency requiring urgent MRI and decompressive surgery within hours to prevent permanent neurological damage.

This presentation — saddle anaesthesia, urinary retention, and bilateral leg weakness — is cauda equina syndrome, one of the absolute red flags in low back pain requiring emergency treatment. Delay risks permanent incontinence and paralysis.

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Q3 OR6.1 1 pt

A 55-year-old woman presents with 6 months of neck pain, progressive tingling in both hands, and unsteady gait. She cannot button her shirt. Examination shows hyperreflexia, Hoffman's sign bilaterally, and a spastic gait. MRI shows multilevel cervical spondylotic changes with spinal cord signal change at C5–C6. The diagnosis is:

A Cervical spondylotic radiculopathy
B Cervical spondylotic myelopathy
C Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
D Multiple sclerosis

Correct. Cervical spondylotic myelopathy presents with progressive myelopathic features — spastic gait, UMN signs (hyperreflexia, Hoffman's sign), fine motor impairment, and bilateral hand symptoms — with structural cord compression on MRI.

Cervical spondylotic myelopathy presents with upper motor neuron (UMN) signs below the level of compression (hyperreflexia, spasticity, Hoffman's sign, clonus, Babinski) combined with cervical pain. Fine motor loss (inability to button) is characteristic. MRI is diagnostic.

Radiculopathy affects a single nerve root with dermatomal sensory loss and lower motor neuron signs. Myelopathy causes UMN signs below the level (hyperreflexia, spasticity, Hoffman's) plus bilateral hand incoordination. MRI cord signal change confirms myelopathy.

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Q4 OR6.1 1 pt

A 42-year-old male presents with back pain and sciatica. On examination, SLR is positive at 35° on the right. You flex the hip with the knee bent (Bragard test variant — hip and knee both flexed) and the pain disappears. This manoeuvre that reproduces/abolishes sciatica by manipulating hip and knee flexion is used to distinguish sciatica from:

A Hamstring tightness
B Piriformis syndrome
C Hip joint pathology
D Both hamstring tightness and hip pathology

Correct. When the knee is flexed during hip flexion, both hamstring tension and hip joint stress are relieved. Pain abolition confirms sciatic nerve root tension as the cause, distinguishing true sciatica from hamstring tightness and hip arthritis.

The SLR test stretches the sciatic nerve and its roots. When SLR is positive, bending the knee (releasing tension on the nerve) abolishes the pain — confirming neurogenic origin. Hip pathology pain persists regardless of knee position. A positive SLR at <70° with pain below the knee (not just buttock) is significant for disc prolapse.

SLR flexes the hip with knee extended (stretching sciatic nerve + hamstrings). Flexing the knee eliminates hamstring tension and reduces hip stress. If pain disappears, it was sciatic nerve root tension — not hamstring or hip joint origin.

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Q5 OR6.1 1 pt

A 50-year-old woman with lumbar spondylosis undergoes MRI which shows a large central L4–L5 disc prolapse. She has bilateral leg pain, sensory disturbance, but still has normal bladder and bowel function. The MOST appropriate initial management is:

A Immediate surgical discectomy
B Conservative management with analgesics, physiotherapy, and neurological monitoring
C Epidural steroid injection today and surgery next week
D Bed rest for 6 weeks without physiotherapy

Correct. In the absence of cauda equina syndrome, conservative management (analgesics, NSAIDs, physiotherapy, core strengthening) for 4–6 weeks is the standard first-line approach. Close neurological monitoring for cauda equina red flags is essential for central disc prolapse.

Lumbar disc prolapse without cauda equina involvement is managed conservatively initially (4–6 weeks of analgesics, physiotherapy, activity modification). Surgery is indicated for failed conservative management (>6 weeks), progressive neurological deficit, or cauda equina syndrome. Central disc prolapse requires close monitoring for cauda equina red flags.

Immediate surgery is reserved for cauda equina syndrome or progressive neurological deficit. Normal bladder/bowel function allows a trial of conservative management. Extended strict bed rest is outdated — early mobilisation with physiotherapy gives better outcomes.

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Q6 OR6.1 1 pt

A 60-year-old retired teacher presents with neck pain radiating to the right arm along the lateral forearm to the thumb and index finger. Examination shows decreased right biceps jerk and sensory loss in the thumb/index finger area. Which cervical nerve root is involved?

A C5 nerve root
B C6 nerve root
C C7 nerve root
D C8 nerve root

Correct. C6 radiculopathy classically presents with thumb and index finger pain/numbness, decreased biceps and brachioradialis reflexes, and forearm lateral sensory disturbance — from C5–C6 disc prolapse.

C6 radiculopathy presents with pain radiating to the thumb and index finger (C6 dermatome), weakness of wrist extension (extensor carpi radialis), decreased biceps and brachioradialis reflexes, and sensory disturbance in the thumb/index finger. C5–C6 disc is the most common cervical disc prolapse level.

Key cervical root localisation: C5 = lateral arm/deltoid (deltoid weakness, biceps reflex); C6 = lateral forearm/thumb/index (biceps/brachioradialis reflex); C7 = middle finger/triceps reflex; C8 = ring/little finger/medial forearm. Thumb + index + decreased biceps jerk = C6.

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Q7 OR6.1 1 pt

A 48-year-old male with chronic low back pain has an X-ray showing osteophytes at L3–L4 and L4–L5 with disc space narrowing and vacuum disc phenomenon. He has no neurological symptoms. Which investigation provides the best assessment of spinal cord and nerve root involvement?

A Plain X-ray lumbar spine (AP and lateral)
B MRI lumbar spine
C Bone scan (technetium-99m)
D Nerve conduction studies alone

Correct. MRI is the investigation of choice for degenerative spine disease when neurological involvement is suspected. It clearly delineates disc prolapse, nerve root compression, canal stenosis, and cord signal changes without radiation.

MRI is the gold-standard investigation for evaluating disc prolapse, nerve root compression, spinal cord pathology, and soft tissue structures in degenerative spine disease. X-ray shows bony changes but not neural structures. CT myelography is an alternative when MRI is contraindicated.

Plain X-rays demonstrate bony changes (osteophytes, disc space narrowing) but cannot show nerve roots, discs, or spinal cord. MRI is required to assess soft tissue and neural structures.

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Q8 OR6.1 1 pt

A 52-year-old male presents with low back pain and sciatica. MRI confirms L5–S1 disc prolapse compressing the right S1 nerve root. Which clinical finding best corresponds to S1 root compression?

A Weakness of great toe dorsiflexion and numbness over the dorsum of the foot
B Weakness of knee extension and sensory loss over the medial leg
C Absent ankle jerk, weakness of plantar flexion, and lateral foot numbness
D Absent knee jerk and sensory loss over the anterior thigh

Correct. S1 root compression produces: absent ankle jerk (most reliable sign), weakness of plantar flexion (cannot stand on tiptoe), and sensory loss over the lateral foot, sole, and little toe.

S1 root compression causes: weakness of plantar flexion (gastrocnemius/soleus — unable to stand on tiptoe), absent ankle jerk (Achilles reflex), and sensory loss over the lateral foot, sole, and little toe (S1 dermatome). L5–S1 disc is the most common level for lumbar disc prolapse.

Remember: L4 = medial leg + knee jerk; L5 = dorsum foot/big toe + no reflex change (L5 has no reliable reflex); S1 = lateral foot/little toe + absent ankle jerk + plantar flexion weakness. Absent ankle jerk with lateral foot numbness = S1.

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