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PE6.1-12 | Adolescent Health — Graded Quiz

Graded 10 questions · Untimed · 2 attempts

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Q1 PE6.2 1 pt

A 12-year-old boy presents with breast enlargement bilaterally (pubertal gynaecomastia) and pubic hair. On examination, his testes are 5 mL bilaterally and he has early penile enlargement. His bone age is 12.5 years. His mother is concerned about 'feminisation'. Which statement about pubertal gynaecomastia is MOST accurate?

A Pubertal gynaecomastia is pathological and requires surgical referral in all cases
B Pubertal gynaecomastia is physiological, occurs in up to 60% of adolescent boys at Tanner stages 2–3, and usually resolves within 12–24 months
C Gynaecomastia at Tanner Stage 2 indicates underlying testicular feminisation syndrome
D Bilateral gynaecomastia at this age is most likely caused by anabolic steroid use

Correct. Pubertal gynaecomastia affects 40–60% of boys at Tanner Stages 2–3 due to a transient imbalance between oestrogen and androgen activity. It is benign and self-limiting, typically resolving within 12–24 months. Persistent (>2 years) or marked gynaecomastia warrants investigation (Klinefelter's, testicular tumour, medications).

Pubertal (physiological) gynaecomastia occurs in up to 60% of boys, peaks at Tanner 2–3, and resolves within 24 months. Investigate for pathological causes if: onset before Tanner 2 or after Tanner 5, persistent >2 years, asymmetric/hard/tender, or associated with testicular mass, short stature, or virilisation failure.

Pubertal gynaecomastia is physiological, peaking at Tanner Stage 3. Pathological causes (Klinefelter's, testicular tumour, liver disease, medications) are excluded by the normal testicular size, normal pubertal progression, and absence of other features. Reassurance and follow-up are appropriate here.

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Q2 PE6.4 1 pt

A 16-year-old girl visits the AFHC reporting unprotected sexual intercourse 2 days ago. She requests emergency contraception. She has no contraindications. Which of the following statements about emergency contraceptive options is CORRECT in the Indian context?

A Combined (Yuzpe) oral emergency contraception is more effective than levonorgestrel ECPs and is the preferred option
B Levonorgestrel 1.5 mg (single dose) is effective within 72 hours of unprotected intercourse, with efficacy declining over time; the copper IUCD is the most effective option up to 5 days
C Emergency contraception can be provided to adolescents only with parental consent under POCSO 2012
D Emergency contraception is 100% effective if taken within 24 hours of unprotected intercourse

Correct. Levonorgestrel 1.5 mg within 72 hours is effective (reduces pregnancy risk by ~85% if taken within 24 hours, ~58% at 49–72 hours). The copper IUCD inserted within 5 days is the most effective emergency contraceptive (>99%). Adolescents may access emergency contraception without mandatory parental consent under the principle of capacity-based consent for health services.

Emergency contraception: LNG 1.5 mg within 72 hours (efficacy ~85% if within 24 h, decreases with time); Cu-IUCD within 5 days (>99% efficacy, also provides ongoing contraception). Capacity-based adolescent consent is the ethical standard for reproductive health services at AFHC.

Levonorgestrel ECPs (not the Yuzpe/combined method) are preferred due to fewer side effects and higher efficacy. Emergency contraception is NOT 100% effective. The POCSO Act mandatory reporting obligation relates to disclosed sexual abuse (non-consensual), not consensual adolescent sexual activity — and capacity-based consent applies to adolescent healthcare.

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Q3 PE6.5 1 pt

A 15-year-old girl with anorexia nervosa and a BMI of 14.2 kg/m² is admitted to the paediatric ward. ECG shows a prolonged QTc interval and bradycardia. Her serum potassium is 2.8 mEq/L. Which of the following explains the mechanism of the ECG abnormality in this patient?

A Elevated cortisol from malnutrition directly prolongs cardiac conduction
B Hypokalaemia from restriction/purging leads to delayed ventricular repolarisation, prolonging QTc and increasing arrhythmia risk
C Bradycardia in anorexia is always a benign adaptive response with no cardiac risk
D QTc prolongation in anorexia is caused by hyperphosphataemia from increased bone resorption

Correct. Hypokalaemia (and hypomagnesaemia) from caloric restriction and/or purging reduces the repolarisation reserve of cardiac myocytes, slowing ventricular repolarisation and prolonging QTc. QTc >450 ms in anorexia nervosa is associated with sudden cardiac death risk — a medical emergency.

Anorexia Nervosa medical emergency indicators: QTc >450 ms, hypokalaemia (<3.0 mEq/L), bradycardia <50/min, hypotension, syncope, or BMI <13 kg/m². Electrolyte correction and cardiac monitoring are priorities during initial management and refeeding.

The predominant electrolyte cause of QTc prolongation in anorexia nervosa is hypokalaemia (and hypomagnesaemia), both of which delay ventricular repolarisation. Bradycardia is present but reflects autonomic adaptation; it is NOT always benign when accompanied by QTc prolongation, electrolyte disturbance, and severely low BMI.

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Q4 PE6.8 1 pt

During an AFHC visit, a 17-year-old boy discloses recreational cannabis use twice weekly for 6 months. He denies any other substance use. He has no psychotic symptoms. Under the HEEADSSS framework, what is the MOST appropriate initial physician response?

A Immediately inform his parents and arrange involuntary admission for substance-use treatment
B Provide brief motivational counselling, assess frequency and impact on school/function, and offer harm-reduction information while maintaining confidentiality
C Dismiss the concern as cannabis use is legal in India for adults over 21
D Refer immediately to inpatient rehabilitation without further assessment of the severity of use

Correct. Adolescent substance use in a HEEADSSS context requires a non-judgmental, motivational approach: assess frequency, impact on functioning (school, relationships), dependence features, and co-occurring mental health issues; provide brief motivational counselling and harm-reduction information; maintain confidentiality unless there is serious harm risk.

In HEEADSSS substance-use screening, use the CRAFFT (Car, Relax, Alone, Forget, Friends, Trouble) tool for adolescent substance use risk stratification. Brief motivational intervention is effective at reducing substance use. Confidentiality is maintained unless harm risk is identified.

Parental notification without consent violates confidentiality unless there is serious harm risk. Cannabis is not legal for adolescents in India. Immediate inpatient referral is disproportionate for non-dependent, non-harmful recreational use at this stage. Brief intervention and motivational counselling are the evidence-based first steps.

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Q5 PE6.2 1 pt

A 13-year-old girl is evaluated for primary amenorrhoea. She has no pubertal development (Tanner Stage 1 breast, Tanner Stage 1 pubic hair). Her height is at the 3rd centile. Bone age is delayed by 2 years. Karyotype reveals 45,X. Which diagnosis explains this combination of features?

A Constitutional Delay of Growth and Puberty (CDGP)
B Hypothyroidism
C Turner Syndrome (45,X)
D Hypothalamic hypogonadism (Kallmann Syndrome)

Correct. Turner Syndrome (45,X monosomy) presents with: short stature, primary (or absent) puberty (streak gonads), primary amenorrhoea, and characteristic features (webbed neck, wide-spaced nipples, cubitus valgus). Karyotype 45,X confirms the diagnosis. Bone age may be delayed.

Turner Syndrome workup: karyotype (45,X or mosaic 45,X/46,XX), echocardiogram (bicuspid aortic valve/coarctation in ~30%), renal USS, thyroid autoantibodies, and oestrogen replacement for puberty induction. Growth hormone therapy improves adult height.

CDGP typically has a family history of delayed puberty and will eventually progress spontaneously — karyotype is 46,XX. Hypothyroidism can delay puberty but does not cause the 45,X karyotype. Kallmann Syndrome involves anosmia + absent GnRH and presents with 46,XX karyotype. The 45,X karyotype is diagnostic of Turner Syndrome.

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Q6 PE6.5 1 pt

A 14-year-old girl presents with a 4-month history of binge-eating episodes followed by self-induced vomiting, laxative misuse, and excessive exercise. Her BMI is 21 kg/m² (normal). She has parotid swelling, tooth enamel erosion, and calluses on the dorsum of her right hand (Russell's sign). She is distressed and ashamed. Which DSM-5 diagnosis is MOST consistent with this presentation?

A Anorexia Nervosa — Binge-Purge Type
B Bulimia Nervosa
C Binge Eating Disorder
D Purging Disorder (OSFED)

Correct. Bulimia Nervosa (DSM-5): recurrent binge eating episodes + recurrent compensatory behaviours (purging, laxatives, excessive exercise) at least once/week for 3 months + normal body weight + self-evaluation unduly influenced by body shape/weight. Parotid swelling, enamel erosion, and Russell's sign are hallmark physical features.

Physical signs of Bulimia Nervosa: parotid (salivary gland) hypertrophy, dental enamel erosion (from acid reflux/vomiting), Russell's sign (calluses/abrasions on dorsum of hand from induced vomiting), hypokaalaemia (ECG changes, muscle weakness). Screen electrolytes in all suspected eating disorder patients.

Anorexia Nervosa Binge-Purge Type requires significantly LOW body weight (BMI <17.5 or equivalent); this patient has a normal BMI. Binge Eating Disorder has recurrent binges WITHOUT compensatory behaviours. Purging Disorder is purging without binge eating. This presentation fits Bulimia Nervosa.

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Q7 PE6.6 1 pt

A 16-year-old male with a 6-week history of low mood, poor concentration, and social withdrawal reports feeling 'better now' after previously expressing suicidal ideation. His current PHQ-9 score is 12 (moderate depression). He denies active suicidal plan today. Which response is MOST clinically appropriate?

A Discharge with a written leaflet about depression and advise return if symptoms worsen
B Perform a structured safety assessment (C-SSRS/ASQ), develop a safety plan, arrange close follow-up, and involve a counsellor; consider SSRI referral via psychiatry
C Prescribe a tricyclic antidepressant as first-line pharmacotherapy for adolescent depression
D Immediate involuntary psychiatric admission as any history of suicidal ideation mandates hospitalisation

Correct. A structured safety assessment (C-SSRS), a written safety plan, and close scheduled follow-up are the evidence-based steps for an adolescent with moderate depression and past suicidal ideation. SSRIs (fluoxetine is the only FDA-approved SSRI for adolescent depression) are first-line pharmacotherapy but should be initiated in consultation with psychiatry.

Adolescent depression management: CBT + SSRI (fluoxetine preferred; black-box warning on increased suicidality — monitor closely in first weeks). Always create a written safety plan, include family if appropriate, and schedule close follow-up within 1 week of any suicidal ideation disclosure.

Discharging with only a leaflet is unsafe for an adolescent with moderate depression and prior suicidal ideation. TCAs are NOT first-line for adolescent depression (cardiotoxicity risk, potential for overdose). Involuntary admission is not mandated solely by past ideation without current active plan/intent.

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Q8 PE6.12 1 pt

An Adolescent Friendly Health Clinic (AFHC) counsellor receives a 13-year-old girl who discloses ongoing sexual abuse by her father. She begs the counsellor not to tell anyone. Under the POCSO Act 2012, what is the CORRECT action?

A Respect the girl's wishes and maintain strict confidentiality, as the therapeutic relationship is paramount
B Report the disclosed abuse to the local police station or the Special Juvenile Police Unit (SJPU) as mandated by POCSO Section 19, and refer to the Child Welfare Committee
C Inform the abusing father first and attempt family mediation
D Refer only to a child psychiatrist and defer reporting until psychiatric evaluation is complete

Correct. POCSO Act 2012, Section 19, mandates that any person who has knowledge of a sexual offence against a child MUST report it to the SJPU or the local police. Failure to report is an offence. The clinician must also refer the child to the Child Welfare Committee and ensure she is in a safe environment. The duty to report overrides confidentiality in this context.

POCSO Act 2012 Section 19: mandatory reporting duty for ALL persons, including healthcare providers. Report to SJPU/police within 24 hours. The CWC (Child Welfare Committee) coordinates child protection and placement. Failure to report is punishable under Section 21. Always ensure immediate safety before the child leaves the facility.

POCSO 2012 (Protection of Children from Sexual Offences) is a mandatory reporting law — there is NO discretion. Confidentiality does not override the legal duty to report. Informing the alleged abuser first is dangerous and contrary to law. Deferring report pending psychiatric evaluation delays child protection.

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Q9 PE6.11 1 pt

A 17-year-old male presents with a 2-year history of excessive weight gain (BMI 31 kg/m² — obese for age), snoring, excessive daytime sleepiness, and hypertension (BP 145/90 mmHg). Fasting glucose is 6.0 mmol/L (108 mg/dL). Which cluster of conditions does this adolescent demonstrate?

A Prader-Willi Syndrome
B Metabolic syndrome in adolescence with obstructive sleep apnoea
C Cushing syndrome
D Hypothyroidism with secondary hypertension

Correct. This adolescent meets criteria for metabolic syndrome (central obesity + elevated BP + impaired fasting glucose — IDF paediatric criteria: waist circumference ≥90th centile, BP ≥130/85, fasting glucose ≥100 mg/dL or T2DM). Obstructive sleep apnoea (OSA) is a common and under-diagnosed comorbidity of adolescent obesity. Together, they represent the NCD burden of adolescent obesity.

IDF Paediatric Metabolic Syndrome criteria (10–16 years): central obesity (waist ≥90th centile) PLUS ≥2 of: TG ≥150 mg/dL, HDL <40 mg/dL, BP ≥130/85, FPG ≥100 mg/dL. Screen all obese adolescents for metabolic syndrome, OSA (polysomnography), fatty liver (LFTs/USG), and PCOS in girls.

Prader-Willi presents with hypotonia, hyperphagia, hypogonadism, and intellectual disability from infancy. Cushing syndrome has central obesity, striae, moon facies, and elevated cortisol. Hypothyroidism causes weight gain but primarily via reduced metabolic rate; hypertension is not a primary feature. This presentation fits metabolic syndrome + OSA secondary to obesity.

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Q10 PE6.9 1 pt

A 15-year-old girl with a BMI at the 97th centile presents with secondary amenorrhoea for 6 months, acne, and hirsutism. Pelvic ultrasound reveals polycystic ovarian morphology (12 follicles per ovary). Her testosterone is elevated. She is at an AFHC visit. Which national programme component MOST directly addresses her risk of NCD progression in the Indian adolescent health framework?

A Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakram (JSSK)
B RKSK's NCD prevention component, combined with AFHC-based counselling for weight management and metabolic risk screening
C Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS)
D National Health Mission's Routine Immunization (RI) Programme

Correct. RKSK's sixth thematic area — Non-Communicable Diseases — specifically addresses obesity, hypertension, metabolic syndrome, and PCOS in adolescents. AFHC is the service delivery platform where this girl should receive counselling, weight management advice, and metabolic risk screening (lipid profile, fasting glucose, BP monitoring).

PCOS in adolescents: diagnosis requires 2 of 3 (per PCOS Society 2018 for adolescents): oligo-amenorrhoea >2 years post-menarche, hyperandrogenism, or polycystic ovarian morphology on USS. RKSK's NCD component and AFHC-based care address the metabolic comorbidities (insulin resistance, dyslipidaemia, future T2DM risk) with lifestyle counselling as first-line therapy.

JSSK is an entitlement scheme for free maternal and neonatal care. ICDS targets children 0–6 years. Routine immunisation addresses vaccine-preventable disease. RKSK's NCD component is the correct programmatic response for adolescent obesity-related NCD risk management in India.

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