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PA8.1-6,PA9.1-2 | Immunopathology & Amyloidosis — Graded Quiz
Graded
12 questions · Untimed · 2 attempts
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A 19-year-old woman develops generalised urticaria, stridor, and hypotension within 5 minutes of receiving intramuscular penicillin. Her serum tryptase drawn 2 hours later is 45 µg/L (normal <11.4 µg/L). Which sequence of events correctly describes the effector phase of this reaction?
A
IgM–allergen complexes deposit on mast cells → complement activation → C3a release → mast cell degranulation
B
Pre-formed IgE cross-links on sensitised mast cells → degranulation of histamine and tryptase → late-phase arachidonic acid metabolites (leukotrienes, PGD2)
✓
C
CD8+ cytotoxic T lymphocytes recognise penicillin-modified self-peptides on MHC I → perforin-mediated lysis of mast cells
D
IgG–penicillin immune complexes deposit in vessel walls → neutrophil recruitment → release of vasoactive amines
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A 35-year-old man with Goodpasture syndrome has rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis. Renal biopsy immunofluorescence shows a LINEAR pattern of IgG and C3 along the glomerular basement membrane (GBM). His serum complement (C3, C4) levels are NORMAL. In contrast, a patient with post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis (PSGN) has LOW serum complement. Which statement BEST explains this difference?
A
Goodpasture antibodies directly block the complement receptor on GBM, preventing complement activation
B
In Goodpasture, IgG binds directly to a self-antigen (α3 chain of type IV collagen) without forming circulating immune complexes; complement is activated locally but not consumed systemically
✓
C
In PSGN, T-cell–mediated cytotoxicity consumes complement more rapidly than antibody-mediated disease
D
Goodpasture syndrome activates only the alternative complement pathway, which does not consume C3 or C4
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A 52-year-old woman with long-standing rheumatoid arthritis presents with progressive bilateral leg oedema, frothy urine (3 g/day proteinuria), and hepatomegaly. Renal biopsy shows amorphous, homogeneous, pale eosinophilic deposits in the mesangium and vessel walls that stain apple-green under polarised light after Congo red staining. Which amyloid precursor protein is MOST likely responsible, and what predisposing mechanism is operative?
A
AL amyloid (immunoglobulin light chains) from an underlying plasma cell dyscrasia producing a monoclonal protein
B
AA amyloid (serum amyloid A protein) from chronic inflammation-driven sustained phase-reactant production
✓
C
Aβ2M amyloid (β2-microglobulin) accumulating secondary to impaired renal clearance in long-term dialysis
D
ATTR amyloid (transthyretin) from age-related misfolding of a normal wild-type protein
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A 48-year-old man with a 2-year history of multiple myeloma develops macroglossia and carpal tunnel syndrome bilaterally. Echocardiography shows a 'sparkling' myocardial texture and left ventricular wall thickness of 16 mm, but his ECG shows LOW-voltage QRS complexes. Which finding on rectal biopsy would DEFINITIVELY confirm the diagnosis and what is its significance?
A
Periodic acid-Schiff (PAS)-positive, diastase-resistant deposits in the submucosa, indicating glycogen accumulation
B
Apple-green birefringence under cross-polarised light after Congo red staining of submucosal vessel walls, confirming amyloid deposition
✓
C
Granulomatous inflammation with Langhans giant cells in the lamina propria, suggesting systemic sarcoidosis as the cause of restrictive cardiomyopathy
D
Ivory-white deposits that turn mahogany-brown with Lugol's iodine and blue-violet with dilute sulphuric acid, representing amyloid as confirmed by iodine reaction
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A 38-year-old man receives a cadaveric renal transplant. Six months later, he develops rising creatinine, mild proteinuria, and hypertension. Renal biopsy shows interstitial fibrosis, tubular atrophy, intimal thickening of arterial walls, and mononuclear cell infiltrates in the interstitium. There is no fibrinoid necrosis. C4d staining of peritubular capillaries is NEGATIVE. What is the MOST likely diagnosis and the dominant immunological mechanism?
A
Hyperacute rejection driven by pre-formed anti-donor HLA antibodies causing immediate complement activation and vascular thrombosis
B
Chronic rejection driven by ongoing T-cell–mediated and antibody-mediated injury causing progressive fibrosis and vasculopathy
✓
C
Calcineurin inhibitor nephrotoxicity producing striped interstitial fibrosis without any immunological component
D
Acute T-cell–mediated rejection with tubulitis and interstitial oedema, occurring within the first 3 months post-transplant
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A 29-year-old woman presents with 4 months of joint pain, a photosensitive facial rash, oral ulcers, and pleuritic chest pain. Investigations: ANA positive (1:1280, homogeneous pattern), anti-dsDNA antibody titre elevated, serum C3 = 0.45 g/L (low), C4 = 0.06 g/L (low). Urine shows red cell casts and 3+ proteinuria. Renal biopsy reveals endocapillary proliferation, wire-loop thickening, and 'full-house' immunofluorescence (IgG, IgA, IgM, C3, C1q). What is the WHO/ISN class of nephritis present, and which is the BEST prognostic indicator?
A
Class II mesangial proliferative lupus nephritis; best prognosis; anti-dsDNA level is the only prognostic marker
B
Class III focal proliferative lupus nephritis; moderate prognosis; complement levels best predict outcome
C
Class IV diffuse proliferative lupus nephritis; worst prognosis among nephritis classes; renal function (serum creatinine/GFR) is the best prognostic indicator
✓
D
Class V membranous lupus nephritis; subepithelial immune complex deposits causing nephrotic syndrome without haematuria
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A 36-year-old HIV-positive man (not on ART) presents with fever, weight loss, and drenching night sweats for 6 weeks. Examination reveals cervical and axillary lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly. His CD4 count is 62 cells/µL and viral load is 380,000 copies/mL. Sputum AFB smear is negative. Lymph node biopsy shows effacement of normal architecture by sheets of macrophages with intracellular organisms (PAS positive, non-encapsulated). Serum LDH is markedly elevated. Which pathogen is MOST likely, and at which CD4 count threshold does this opportunistic infection typically emerge?
A
Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia; typically emerges when CD4 <200 cells/µL; treatment is trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
B
Disseminated Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC); typically emerges when CD4 <50 cells/µL; causes macrophage-dominated granulomatous reaction
✓
C
Cryptococcus neoformans meningitis; typically emerges when CD4 <100 cells/µL; organisms are encapsulated yeasts with clear halo on India ink
D
Cytomegalovirus (CMV) retinitis; typically emerges when CD4 <50 cells/µL; biopsy shows intranuclear 'owl-eye' inclusions in endothelial cells
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A contact allergy patch test is performed on a 33-year-old woman suspected of nickel sensitivity. The site shows redness, induration, and vesiculation at 72 hours. Histologically, the dermis contains CD4+ T lymphocytes and macrophages around dermal vessels. The epidermis shows spongiosis. Which sequence of events correctly describes the SENSITISATION phase that occurred weeks earlier on first exposure to the metal?
A
Nickel → hapten–protein conjugate → Langerhans cells process and present hapten-MHC II to naïve CD4+ T cells in regional lymph nodes → generation of sensitised memory Th1 cells
✓
B
Nickel ions bind to IgE on skin mast cells → IgE cross-linking → immediate degranulation → sensitised skin
C
Nickel → directly activates complement via lectin pathway → C3a deposits in skin → sensitises mast cells for subsequent reactions
D
Nickel–protein complexes bind to B cells → IgM production → IgM deposits in dermal vessel walls → sensitises skin for future Type III reactions
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A 62-year-old man with a history of multiple myeloma (IgG kappa type) presents with a 6-month history of constipation, peripheral oedema, and progressive dyspnoea on exertion. Echocardiography shows concentric left ventricular thickening (18 mm) with a granular 'sparkling' texture; ejection fraction is 50%. His ECG shows generalised low-voltage QRS complexes with a pseudo-infarction pattern in V1-V3. Serum protein electrophoresis shows a monoclonal spike; urine immunofixation is positive for free kappa light chains. Which ONE test would most definitively subtype the amyloid deposit and guide treatment?
A
SAP (serum amyloid P) scintigraphy scan to quantify total body amyloid burden
B
Mass spectrometry-based proteomics of a biopsy specimen to identify the specific fibril protein
✓
C
Serum amyloid A (SAA) level to distinguish AL from AA amyloidosis
D
Bone marrow biopsy to confirm plasma cell proliferation, which alone confirms AL amyloidosis
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A 45-year-old woman develops a serum sickness–like illness 10 days after receiving horse anti-tetanus immunoglobulin. She has fever, urticarial rash, polyarthralgia, and proteinuria. Investigations show: low C3 and C4, elevated ESR, and eosinophilia. Renal biopsy shows granular IgG and C3 deposits in a mesangial and subendothelial pattern. Which pathological process BEST explains her proteinuria?
A
IgE-mediated mast cell degranulation causing immediate vascular permeability and proteinuria through Type I mechanism
B
Circulating horse-protein/IgG immune complexes depositing in glomerular mesangium and subendothelium, activating complement (C3a, C5a) and recruiting neutrophils → glomerular injury → proteinuria
✓
C
Horse antigen–specific CD8+ T cells attacking glomerular endothelial cells expressing foreign antigen on MHC I
D
Anti-horse IgG antibodies binding directly to the GBM, activating complement in a linear IF pattern and causing Type II cytotoxic injury
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A 33-year-old HIV-positive man (CD4 count 38 cells/µL, viral load 450,000 copies/mL, not on ART) develops severe headache, neck stiffness, and photophobia over 5 days. Lumbar puncture: opening pressure 340 mmH₂O, CSF is clear, cell count 12 cells/mm³ (predominantly mononuclear), protein 65 mg/dL, glucose 32 mg/dL (simultaneous blood glucose 110 mg/dL). India ink preparation is POSITIVE. Which additional CSF finding would MOST strongly support the diagnosis, and what is the first-line treatment?
A
Gram-positive diplococci on Gram stain; first-line treatment is ceftriaxone + dexamethasone
B
Elevated cryptococcal antigen (CrAg) titer; first-line treatment is amphotericin B + flucytosine (induction phase)
✓
C
Positive VDRL in CSF; first-line treatment is benzathine penicillin G
D
AFB on Ziehl-Neelsen stain; first-line treatment is standard anti-TB RHEZ regimen
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A 60-year-old man with a 15-year history of bronchiectasis secondary to recurrent bacterial pneumonias presents with massive proteinuria (6 g/day) and hepatomegaly. His serum albumin is 1.8 g/dL. Renal biopsy shows PAS-negative amorphous deposits in the mesangium and vessel walls that are Congo red positive with apple-green birefringence. Immunohistochemistry of the deposits is NEGATIVE for kappa and lambda light chains but POSITIVE for SAA protein. Which pathophysiological mechanism BEST explains the progression from bronchiectasis to this complication?
A
Chronic hypoxia from bronchiectasis → polycythaemia → increased blood viscosity → AL amyloid fibril formation in the kidneys
B
Recurrent bacterial infections → sustained IL-1/IL-6/TNF-α drive → chronic hepatic overproduction of serum amyloid A (SAA) → AA fibril deposition exceeding macrophage clearance capacity
✓
C
Repeated antibiotic use → dysbiosis → gut-derived LPS → direct hepatocyte toxicity → SAA misfolding and deposition
D
Bronchiectasis → chronic hypercapnia → respiratory acidosis → complement consumption → secondary immunodeficiency → AL amyloidosis
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