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PA19.{1-3,5-6} | Lymphadenopathy & Lymphomas — Graded Quiz
Graded
12 questions · Untimed · 2 attempts
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A 24-year-old woman notices a painless 2 cm right posterior cervical lymph node while combing her hair. It has been present for 3 weeks. She has low-grade fever and mild fatigue. There are no other enlarged nodes. CBC shows mild lymphocytosis (lymphocytes 5,200/µL) with 15% atypical lymphocytes. Monospot test is positive. The node is soft and mildly tender. Which is the most appropriate management strategy?
A
Watchful waiting with symptomatic treatment; excision biopsy is not indicated as this is classical infectious mononucleosis with characteristic reactive lymphadenopathy
✓
B
Immediate excision biopsy of the posterior cervical node to exclude Hodgkin lymphoma presenting at this age
C
Fine-needle aspiration cytology (FNAC) of the node to characterise the atypical lymphocyte population and exclude lymphoma
D
Start empirical anti-tuberculosis therapy as posterior cervical lymphadenopathy is most commonly TB in this age group in India
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A 30-year-old man presents with 8 weeks of cervical lymphadenopathy. Excision biopsy histology: lymph node architecture is partially effaced by non-caseating epithelioid cell granulomas without central necrosis; giant cells of the Langhans type are present; no Reed-Sternberg cells; no malignant cells; ZN stain negative for AFB; no organisms on fungal staining. Serum ACE is elevated. Chest X-ray shows bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy. Which diagnosis is most consistent with this pathological picture?
A
Sarcoidosis — non-caseating granulomas with negative ZN stain and elevated serum ACE, bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy without constitutional symptoms
✓
B
Tuberculous lymphadenitis — non-caseating granulomas can occur in early TB before caseation develops; the diagnosis cannot be excluded by ZN negativity alone
C
Cat-scratch disease — Bartonella henselae causes granulomas with stellate microabscesses; the absence of these features and elevated ACE confirm sarcoidosis as the alternative
D
Granulomatous variant of Hodgkin lymphoma — Reed-Sternberg cells are occasionally sparse and missed; CD30/CD15 immunostaining should be performed before accepting sarcoidosis as the diagnosis
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A 28-year-old male presents with 8 weeks of cervical lymphadenopathy, low-grade fever, and night sweats. Excision biopsy: the node is partially effaced; large binucleate cells with prominent eosinophilic 'owl-eye' nucleoli are identified against a background of lymphocytes, eosinophils, plasma cells, and histiocytes without collagen bands. Immunostaining: CD15+, CD30+, CD45−, CD20−. EBV-encoded RNA (EBER) in-situ hybridisation is positive. Which subtype of classical Hodgkin lymphoma is this, and what is its key epidemiological/EBV association?
A
Mixed cellularity classical Hodgkin lymphoma (MCHL); the most EBV-associated subtype (~70% EBER positive), prevalent in developing countries and associated with HIV
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B
Nodular sclerosis classical Hodgkin lymphoma (NSHL); the most common subtype in developed countries, EBV-positive in ~40% of cases with young women predominance
C
Lymphocyte-rich classical Hodgkin lymphoma (LRHL); characterised by numerous RS cells in a pure lymphocyte background with the highest EBV positivity rate of all subtypes
D
Nodular lymphocyte-predominant Hodgkin lymphoma (NLPHL); characterised by 'popcorn cells' (LP cells) and CD15+/CD30+ immunostaining
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A 20-year-old woman presents with a large anterior mediastinal mass on chest X-ray, discovered incidentally during an MBBS entrance medical examination. She is asymptomatic. CT chest: 12 cm anterior mediastinal mass with areas of necrosis and fibrous septa. PET-CT: SUVmax 18, no subdiaphragmatic involvement. CBC and LDH are normal. Excision biopsy shows: broad collagen bands dividing the node into nodules; lacunar cells (mononuclear, with retracted cytoplasm); eosinophils in background; CD30+, CD15+, CD45−. According to Ann Arbor staging, this is Stage IIA. Which statement about her prognosis and treatment approach is most accurate?
A
Classical Hodgkin lymphoma, nodular sclerosis type, Stage IIA; cure rates >90% with ABVD chemotherapy ± consolidation radiotherapy; PET-adapted therapy is standard
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B
Classical Hodgkin lymphoma, nodular sclerosis type, Stage IIA; this is a B symptom-negative case; B symptoms would upgrade staging to Stage IIB and mandate BEACOPP over ABVD
C
Classical Hodgkin lymphoma, nodular sclerosis type, Stage IIA; prognosis is poor due to large mediastinal mass (bulky disease), which is a relapse-predicting feature despite early stage
D
Non-Hodgkin lymphoma, primary mediastinal B-cell lymphoma (PMBCL); the age, sex, and mediastinal location are classic for PMBCL, not Hodgkin lymphoma
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A 42-year-old man undergoes excision biopsy of a 3 cm axillary lymph node. The pathological report describes: 'Nodal architecture is partially effaced; multiple well-defined follicle-like structures are present throughout the cortex, medulla, and perisinusoidal areas; these follicles lack polarisation into dark and light zones and contain monomorphic small centrocytes; tingible-body macrophages are absent from the follicles; no Reed-Sternberg cells.' IHC: CD20+, CD10+, BCL-2+, BCL-6+. FISH: t(14;18)(q32;q21) detected. What is the diagnosis, and how does it differ from reactive follicular hyperplasia histologically?
A
Follicular lymphoma; distinguished from reactive follicular hyperplasia by: absent polarisation of germinal centres, absent tingible-body macrophages, BCL-2+ follicular cells, monomorphic centrocytes, t(14;18)
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B
Reactive follicular hyperplasia; the presence of CD10+ and BCL-6+ follicular cells is normal and confirms the germinal centre origin of the reactive cells
C
Follicular lymphoma; the key distinguishing feature from reactive hyperplasia is the high proliferation index (Ki-67 >80%) in follicular lymphoma germinal centres
D
CLL/SLL with secondary follicular transformation; the axillary location and small lymphocyte morphology are more consistent with SLL than follicular lymphoma
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A 16-year-old boy in sub-Saharan Africa presents with a rapidly enlarging jaw swelling over 3 weeks. Biopsy of the mass shows: intermediate-sized lymphoid cells (slightly larger than a small lymphocyte) with round nuclei, fine chromatin, multiple small nucleoli, and minimal cytoplasm; a 'starry sky' pattern is created by tingible-body macrophages scattered among the tumour cells. Ki-67 is nearly 100%. IHC: CD20+, CD10+, BCL-6+, BCL-2−, MYC+. FISH: c-MYC rearrangement with IgH at t(8;14). Which statement best explains the pathogenesis of this tumour and its geographical distribution?
A
Endemic Burkitt lymphoma: EBV infection + malaria-induced immune dysregulation promotes c-MYC translocation in germinal-centre B cells; t(8;14) drives uncontrolled proliferation; BCL-2 negativity explains the paradox of high apoptosis (tingible-body macrophages) despite high proliferation
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B
Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma (DLBCL): the c-MYC rearrangement and Ki-67 >80% are diagnostic of double-hit lymphoma (DHL), which is the most common B-cell lymphoma in children in sub-Saharan Africa
C
Hodgkin lymphoma, lymphocyte-depleted subtype: the 'starry sky' pattern represents sparse RS cells in a depleted lymphocyte background; CD30 and CD15 immunostaining would confirm this
D
Mantle cell lymphoma (MCL): rapid growth and jaw location are characteristic of blastoid MCL; cyclin D1 overexpression would be confirmed by IHC and t(11;14) by FISH
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A 68-year-old man presents with painless generalised lymphadenopathy, splenomegaly, and fatigue for 6 months. He has no B symptoms. Lymph node biopsy: partial effacement of nodal architecture; multiple distinct follicles composed of uniform small centrocytes (CD10+, BCL-2+, BCL-6+) and a minority of centroblasts; proliferating cells are confined to follicles. Bone marrow trephine: paratrabecular lymphoid aggregates with small cleaved cells. LDH is normal. A bone marrow karyotype shows t(14;18). What is the most accurate statement about this patient's disease trajectory?
A
Grade 1–2 follicular lymphoma; indolent with median survival >12 years; however, 30–40% will transform to DLBCL within 10 years, heralding aggressive acceleration — monitoring for transformation signs is essential
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B
Grade 1–2 follicular lymphoma; it can be cured with single-agent rituximab alone; cure is achieved in >80% of patients with Stage IV disease
C
Grade 1–2 follicular lymphoma; since LDH is normal and the patient is asymptomatic, the FLIPI score is 0, meaning no treatment or monitoring is needed for at least 5 years
D
This is MDS with follicular morphology; the t(14;18) in the bone marrow with paratrabecular lymphoid aggregates indicates a mixed myelodysplastic/lymphoma syndrome
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A pathologist preparing a practical tutorial for Year-2 students describes the microscopic appearance of a lymph node from a 55-year-old man with cervical lymphadenopathy of 4 months duration. The description reads: 'Low power shows complete architectural effacement; high power shows large cells with vesicular nuclei, prominent multiple nucleoli, and abundant pale cytoplasm, growing in sheets (diffuse pattern); background inflammatory cells are sparse; no RS cells. IHC: CD20+, CD10−, BCL-2+, MUM1+, Ki-67 70%. EBV negative.' Which lymphoma subtype and its cell-of-origin does this most accurately represent?
A
Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma, non-germinal-centre B-cell (non-GCB/activated B-cell) subtype; arises from post-germinal-centre activated B cells, driven by constitutive NF-κB pathway activation
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B
Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma, germinal-centre B-cell (GCB) subtype; CD10 negativity and BCL-2 positivity confirm GCB origin and predict favourable prognosis with R-CHOP
C
Burkitt lymphoma; the diffuse large cell morphology with Ki-67 70% and BCL-2 negativity fits Burkitt, and the CD20+ confirms B-cell lineage
D
Primary mediastinal large B-cell lymphoma (PMBCL); CD10 negativity and MUM1+ are the IHC hallmarks of PMBCL even when the mediastinal origin cannot be demonstrated clinically
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An aspiring surgeon removes a posterior cervical lymph node from a 42-year-old man and sends the fresh specimen for frozen section. The pathologist calls back: 'The frozen section shows lymphoid tissue with architectural effacement; I cannot exclude lymphoma. I need the entire excision biopsy in formalin for paraffin sections and IHC. Please do not send the node for FNAC or culture.' The surgeon asks why the pathologist insists on the intact node and paraffin sections instead of FNAC, which is faster. Which explanation is most accurate?
A
Lymphoma diagnosis requires the preserved nodal architecture; FNAC yields only isolated cells without architecture, making it impossible to assess follicular vs diffuse pattern, reactive background cell composition, Reed-Sternberg cell context, and collagen band formation — all required for WHO subtype classification
✓
B
FNAC is contraindicated in all lymph nodes regardless of the clinical context; any nodal needle procedure carries risk of tumour seeding along the needle track
C
Paraffin sections are needed only for IHC; architecture can be assessed on frozen sections as well as paraffin, so the insistence on formalin fixation is merely a laboratory preference
D
The primary reason is that culture for mycobacteria requires fresh tissue and takes priority; FNAC cannot be cultured, hence the intact node is needed
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A 35-year-old HIV-positive male with a CD4 count of 45 cells/µL presents with a rapidly enlarging right submandibular swelling, fever, and weight loss of 8 kg over 6 weeks. Biopsy of the mass shows: intermediate-sized lymphoid cells with round nuclei, finely dispersed chromatin, 2–3 small nucleoli, and a narrow rim of basophilic cytoplasm; the cells grow diffusely; tingible-body macrophages are abundant creating a 'starry sky' appearance; Ki-67 is 99.8%. IHC: CD20+, CD10+, BCL-6+, BCL-2−, MYC rearranged (FISH). EBV: EBER positive. This is best classified as:
A
Sporadic/immunodeficiency-associated Burkitt lymphoma; EBV and c-MYC rearrangement in an HIV-positive patient with CD4 <100 is the classic AIDS-defining malignancy presentation
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B
Plasmablastic lymphoma of HIV; CD20 positivity and BCL-2 negativity confirm the plasmablastic variant, which has the same prognosis as Burkitt lymphoma in this setting
C
EBV-positive diffuse large B-cell lymphoma of the elderly; the HIV context and age distinguish this from Burkitt lymphoma
D
Post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorder (PTLD) polymorphic type; the EBER positivity and immunodeficiency are sufficient to classify this as PTLD
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A 40-year-old man presents with a large (10 cm) matted mass of cervical and supraclavicular lymph nodes, fever, drenching night sweats, and 12 kg weight loss over 3 months. PET-CT shows involvement of cervical, mediastinal, and abdominal para-aortic nodes, plus the spleen. No liver or bone marrow involvement. Excision biopsy: Hodgkin lymphoma, mixed cellularity type. What is the Ann Arbor stage, and which factor places this in the unfavourable prognostic category?
A
Stage IIBS; B symptoms (fever, night sweats, weight loss) + stage III (both sides of diaphragm, spleen) = unfavourable prognosis; BEACOPP escalated is preferred over ABVD for advanced-stage disease
✓
B
Stage IVB; bone marrow involvement defines Stage IV; the absence of marrow disease confirmed on PET-CT means this is Stage III at most
C
Stage IIB; the supra- and infra-diaphragmatic nodal involvement is balanced by splenic involvement counting only as one extra 'region'; two regions = Stage II
D
Stage IIIA; all B symptoms have already been described, but the staging notation 'A' is reserved for patients >60 years with no constitutional symptoms
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A 55-year-old woman is found to have bilateral posterior cervical and inguinal lymphadenopathy on a routine examination. She has no symptoms. A lymph node biopsy from the inguinal region shows: 'Effaced nodal architecture; sinuses filled and expanded by large cells with abundant pale cytoplasm, small round nuclei, and inconspicuous nucleoli; the cells show prominent erythrophagocytosis; IHC: CD68+, S100+, CD1a−, CD21+.' Which diagnosis does this histological pattern indicate?
A
Sinus histiocytosis with massive lymphadenopathy (Rosai-Dorfman disease); CD68+, S100+, CD1a−, emperipolesis (lymphocytes within histiocyte cytoplasm), and sinus expansion define this entity
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B
Langerhans cell histiocytosis (LCH); CD1a and S100 co-positivity with sinus expansion and erythrophagocytosis are the diagnostic IHC profile
C
Metastatic poorly differentiated carcinoma; CD68 positivity identifies tumour cells of epithelial origin, and sinus expansion indicates lymphovascular invasion
D
Follicular dendritic cell sarcoma; CD21 positivity combined with S100 positivity is the specific IHC pattern for FDC sarcoma with sinus growth
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