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PA25.1-7 | Respiratory System — Graded Quiz

Graded 12 questions · Untimed · 2 attempts

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Q1 PA25.1 1 pt

A 67-year-old alcoholic man is brought to the emergency department with high-grade fever, rigors, and rusty-brown sputum for 3 days. Chest X-ray shows complete consolidation of the right lower lobe with visible air bronchograms. He is treated with antibiotics and recovers. Two weeks later, repeat imaging shows complete resolution. Which stage of lobar pneumonia had the patient most likely entered at the time of presentation, given the gross appearance of rusty sputum and early hepatization?

A Stage 1 — Congestion, characterised by vascular engorgement and few bacteria
B Stage 2 — Red hepatization, with fibrin, RBCs, and neutrophils filling alveoli producing rust-coloured sputum
C Stage 3 — Grey hepatization, with macrophage predominance and RBC degradation
D Stage 4 — Resolution, with enzymatic digestion of exudate and return of aeration

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Q2 PA25.2 1 pt

A 72-year-old diabetic woman is admitted with confusion, productive cough, and a spiking fever. Her husband reports she frequently chokes while eating. Blood cultures grow mixed anaerobic organisms. CT chest reveals a thick-walled cavity with an air-fluid level in the posterior segment of the right upper lobe, surrounded by consolidated parenchyma. Which of the following best explains the predilection of aspiration lung abscess for this anatomical location?

A The right upper lobe has a higher oxygen tension, favouring aerobic bacteria that destroy lung tissue
B In the supine or semi-recumbent position, aspirated material drains preferentially into the posterior segment of the right upper lobe via the straighter, more vertical right main bronchus
C The right upper lobe has reduced mucociliary clearance compared to other lobes due to a shorter bronchus
D Pulmonary arterial blood flow is highest to the right upper lobe, delivering more bacteria haematogenously

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Q3 PA25.3 1 pt

A 55-year-old ex-smoker (40 pack-years, quit 5 years ago) presents with progressive exertional breathlessness and a barrel-shaped chest. Spirometry shows FEV1/FVC 0.58, FEV1 42% predicted, and TLC 130% predicted. HRCT shows bilateral paraseptal and centrilobular areas of low attenuation without walls, predominating in the upper zones. Which pathological mechanism best explains the upper-zone predominance of this disease pattern in relation to smoking?

A Upper zones receive higher ventilation-to-perfusion ratios, concentrating inhaled toxins and directing protease activity preferentially to apical alveoli
B Upper zone lymphatics are less developed, impairing clearance of tobacco particulates from alveolar macrophages
C Elastic recoil is intrinsically lower in the upper zones, making them more vulnerable to air-trapping before any inflammation occurs
D Surfactant production is reduced in the upper zones in smokers, leading to alveolar collapse followed by compensatory hyperinflation

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Q4 PA25.3 1 pt

A 29-year-old atopic woman with seasonal allergic rhinitis is brought to the emergency department during a severe asthma exacerbation. She has not responded to four doses of salbutamol. On examination, she has a respiratory rate of 34/min, SpO2 82%, and is using accessory muscles. She dies despite resuscitation. Autopsy reveals overdistended lungs with mucus plugs filling the airways. Microscopy of the bronchial wall would most characteristically show which combination of findings?

A Squamous metaplasia of epithelium, goblet cell loss, and submucosal neutrophilic infiltrate
B Goblet cell hyperplasia, subepithelial basement membrane thickening, eosinophilic infiltrate, and smooth muscle hypertrophy
C Destruction of bronchial cartilage, mucopurulent luminal contents, and chronic fibrotic wall changes
D Caseating granulomas in the bronchial wall with acid-fast bacilli on Ziehl-Neelsen stain

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Q5 PA25.4 1 pt

A 10-year-old child from a rural area presents with a 3-week history of low-grade fever, weight loss, and a positive Mantoux test (induration 18 mm). Chest X-ray shows a small calcified nodule in the right mid-zone with ipsilateral hilar enlargement. The child is otherwise well. This radiological complex represents the end result of which immunological process?

A Type I (IgE-mediated) hypersensitivity leading to mast cell degranulation at the site of bacillary deposition
B Type II (cytotoxic) hypersensitivity with complement-mediated lysis of mycobacteria-laden macrophages
C Type IV (delayed-type) hypersensitivity resulting in granuloma formation with caseous necrosis, followed by calcification of the Ghon focus and draining nodes
D Type III (immune-complex) hypersensitivity depositing antigen-antibody complexes in hilar lymph nodes, activating complement

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Q6 PA25.5 1 pt

A 48-year-old man presents with progressive dyspnoea and a productive cough over 6 months. He has worked in a granite quarrying operation for 20 years without respiratory protection. HRCT shows bilateral upper-zone nodules, some coalescing to large masses, with 'eggshell calcification' of hilar lymph nodes. Lung function testing shows a restrictive pattern. He is also found to have a significantly elevated serum ACE level and an abnormal Mantoux reaction. Which of the following best explains why this patient is at markedly increased risk for pulmonary tuberculosis?

A Silica particles physically disrupt mycobacterial cell walls, enabling easier bacillary replication in the lung interstitium
B Silica crystals impair alveolar macrophage function — triggering apoptosis and cathepsin-B release — thereby preventing effective mycobacterial killing and granuloma maintenance
C Silicotic fibrosis creates hypoxic zones that favour anaerobic mycobacterial growth in the lung apices
D Silica induces pulmonary hypertension which redistributes blood flow to apices, increasing mycobacterial seeding from the bloodstream

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Q7 PA25.6 1 pt

A 63-year-old male construction worker with a 35-pack-year smoking history presents with a 3-month history of haemoptysis, weight loss, and progressive breathlessness. CT shows a 4.5 cm central hilar mass with mediastinal lymphadenopathy and post-obstructive collapse of the right upper lobe. Bronchoscopic biopsy reveals large pleomorphic cells arranged in nests with abundant pink cytoplasm, no gland formation, and intercellular bridges on high-power examination. Which tumour type and its most likely immunohistochemical profile best match this biopsy?

A Adenocarcinoma — CK7+, TTF-1+, napsin A+
B Squamous cell carcinoma — CK5/6+, p63+, TTF-1 negative
C Small cell carcinoma — CD56+, synaptophysin+, chromogranin+, TTF-1+
D Large cell carcinoma — CK7+, TTF-1 negative, p40 negative, no neuroendocrine markers

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Q8 PA25.6 1 pt

A 58-year-old woman, a lifelong non-smoker who worked as a cook in a poorly ventilated kitchen for 30 years, presents with a 2.5 cm peripheral lung nodule discovered incidentally. CT-guided biopsy shows tumour cells growing along alveolar walls without stromal invasion, vascular involvement, or pleural involvement. The pathologist uses the term 'lepidic' pattern. Molecular testing reveals an EGFR exon 19 deletion. Which of the following best describes the expected biological behaviour and optimal therapeutic approach for this tumour?

A High metastatic potential; first-line treatment is cisplatin-based doublet chemotherapy
B Indolent behaviour confined to alveolar walls at this stage; amenable to surgical resection with excellent prognosis, and EGFR deletion confers sensitivity to tyrosine kinase inhibitors if advanced
C Aggressive neuroendocrine differentiation with early mediastinal spread; octreotide scan positive
D Pre-invasive squamous lesion that will progress to invasive SCC; resection cures and EGFR status is irrelevant

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Q9 PA25.6 1 pt

A 61-year-old male shipyard worker presents with progressive dyspnoea, a dry cough, and bilateral basal fine crackles over 10 years. He reports no smoking history but worked with lagging materials for 25 years. CT thorax shows bilateral lower-zone ground-glass opacification and pleural plaques. Pulmonary function tests reveal FVC 58% predicted, FEV1/FVC 0.80, DLCO 45% predicted. He is now referred for evaluation of a right pleural effusion with a thick, shaggy pleural peel. Cytological examination of pleural fluid shows malignant mesothelial cells. Which gross feature of mesothelioma best explains why the lesion typically encases rather than invades the lung parenchyma?

A Mesothelioma cells express E-cadherin, creating tight intercellular junctions that prevent individual cell migration into lung tissue
B Mesothelioma arises from the visceral and parietal pleural mesothelial cells and grows in a rind-like pattern along pleural surfaces, compressing the lung externally rather than invading parenchyma
C Asbestos fibres lodge in pleural lymphatics, restricting mesothelioma spread to lymphovascular channels rather than lung tissue
D Mesothelioma secretes TGF-β which induces fibrosis in adjacent lung, creating a physical barrier against tumour invasion

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Q10 PA25.5 1 pt

A 50-year-old woman is diagnosed with primary pulmonary hypertension. She is incidentally found to have bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy and elevated serum ACE. Bronchoscopic biopsy of a peribronchial nodule shows non-caseating granulomas with Langhans-type giant cells and asteroid bodies. Ziehl-Neelsen stain is negative, and cultures are sterile. Her spirometry shows a restrictive pattern. Which occupational exposure would most specifically explain this combination of findings if present in her history?

A 20-year history of cotton textile work in a poorly ventilated mill
B 15-year history of beryllium processing in an aerospace component factory
C 25-year history of coal mining in an underground operation
D 30-year history of asbestos insulation work in shipbuilding

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Q11 PA25.6 1 pt

A 68-year-old man with a 45 pack-year history presents with haemoptysis, weight loss, and a central right-sided mass on CXR with associated right upper lobe collapse. Bronchoscopic biopsy shows a tumour with small dark cells, nuclear moulding, a very high mitotic rate, and 'salt-and-pepper' chromatin. Immunohistochemistry shows synaptophysin+, CD56+, and a Ki-67 index of 85%. Serum sodium is 122 mmol/L despite normal fluid intake. What is the most likely paraneoplastic mechanism responsible for his hyponatraemia?

A PTHrP secretion causing calcium-driven inhibition of ADH release from the posterior pituitary
B Ectopic ADH (vasopressin) secretion by tumour cells causing syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion (SIADH)
C Ectopic ACTH secretion causing aldosterone-driven urinary sodium wasting
D Bombesin secretion stimulating renal proximal tubule sodium excretion

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Q12 PA25.7 1 pt

A pathology museum exhibit displays a gross specimen: a lung lobe showing a cavity approximately 6 cm in diameter in the upper zone, with a thick, irregular fibrotic wall lined by yellowish caseous material. Adjacent parenchyma shows multiple grey-white nodules at various stages of healing and fibrosis. Satellite lesions are visible extending toward the pleura, and one nodule appears to have ruptured into the pleural space. A Year-2 student examining this specimen concludes it is secondary (post-primary) tuberculosis. Which combination of features most supports this conclusion versus a lung abscess?

A Single cavity with air-fluid level, foul odour, and surrounding acute inflammatory zone — consistent with secondary TB reactivation
B Upper-zone cavity with caseous lining, multiple satellite nodules at various healing stages, and pleural spread — consistent with secondary TB
C Multiple bilateral thin-walled cavities with haemorrhagic contents — typical of secondary TB in an immunocompetent patient
D Single lower-zone abscess in a posterior segment, foul-smelling content, and surrounding consolidation — consistent with post-primary TB

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