Page 9 of 11

PS10.1,PS11.1 | Developmental Psychiatry — Graded Quiz

Graded 10 questions · Untimed · 2 attempts

Click any question card to reveal the correct answer.

Q1 PS10.1 1 pt

An 8-year-old girl is referred for evaluation of academic underperformance. Her teacher reports she is often 'in a world of her own', misses instructions, loses her pencil case repeatedly, and fails to complete written work despite apparent effort. She is not disruptive and sits quietly. At home she drifts off during conversations and frequently forgets to pass on messages from school. Her parents deny hyperactivity. Which DSM-5 ADHD presentation does this best represent?

A ADHD, predominantly hyperactive-impulsive presentation
B ADHD, combined presentation
C ADHD, predominantly inattentive presentation
D Autism Spectrum Disorder with social-communication deficits

Correct. DSM-5 specifies three presentations: predominantly inattentive (≥6 inattentive symptoms, <6 hyperactive-impulsive), predominantly hyperactive-impulsive (reverse), and combined (≥6 of both). This girl has only inattentive features with no hyperactivity.

DSM-5 ADHD presentations: predominantly inattentive, predominantly hyperactive-impulsive, combined. The inattentive type is more common in girls and often under-recognised because children are not disruptive.

This clinical picture — inattention, forgetfulness, easy distractibility, organisational problems — with no hyperactivity or impulsivity fits the predominantly inattentive presentation of DSM-5 ADHD. Girls are more often diagnosed with this subtype, which may explain later referral.

Click to reveal answer

Q2 PS10.1 1 pt

The parents of a 6-year-old boy diagnosed with ASD ask whether he can also be treated for ADHD, as his teacher reports significant hyperactivity and inattention in the classroom. Which of the following is the correct response?

A DSM-5 prohibits ADHD diagnosis in children with ASD; his hyperactivity is part of ASD
B DSM-5 permits concurrent ASD and ADHD diagnosis; if ADHD criteria are met, both diagnoses can be given
C Methylphenidate is contraindicated in children with ASD regardless of ADHD symptoms
D A diagnosis of ADHD replaces the ASD diagnosis when hyperactivity is prominent

Correct. DSM-5 explicitly removed the exclusion that was present in DSM-IV. Concurrent ASD+ADHD diagnosis is now supported. Methylphenidate can be used for ADHD symptoms in children with ASD, though response rates and side effect profiles may differ.

DSM-5 paradigm shift: ASD+ADHD co-diagnosis is now standard practice when criteria for both are independently met. Up to 50% of children with ASD have clinically significant ADHD symptoms.

DSM-IV precluded ADHD diagnosis in ASD; DSM-5 permits it. Both diagnoses can coexist. ADHD comorbidity in ASD is common (30-50%). Methylphenidate is used (though with somewhat variable response in ASD).

Click to reveal answer

Q3 PS10.1 1 pt

A 12-year-old boy with high-functioning ASD (no intellectual disability) excels in mathematics but has no friends, cannot understand jokes, and is bullied because he takes statements literally. He does not understand why classmates react with frustration when he corrects their factual errors repeatedly. Which ASD domain does this presentation primarily illustrate?

A Restricted/repetitive behaviours — insistence on sameness
B Deficits in social communication and social interaction
C Sensory hypersensitivity
D Executive dysfunction without social impairment

Correct. This vignette illustrates deficits in pragmatic/social communication (inability to interpret non-literal language, jokes) and social interaction (lack of friends, failure to read social cues). High intelligence does not protect against social-communication deficits in ASD.

ASD social-communication deficits include: reduced eye contact, failure to read social cues, impaired pragmatics (literal interpretation, difficulty understanding humour/sarcasm), deficits in joint attention, and challenges with perspective-taking (Theory of Mind deficit).

The core DSM-5 ASD domain being tested here is social communication and social interaction deficits — specifically pragmatic language use, non-verbal communication, and social reciprocity. Academic ability is preserved in high-functioning ASD but social-communication deficits persist.

Click to reveal answer

Q4 PS10.1 1 pt

Which of the following statements about the aetiology of ADHD is most accurate?

A ADHD is caused exclusively by poor parenting and lack of discipline
B ADHD has a strong genetic basis with heritability estimated at 70-80%; dopaminergic pathways are implicated
C ADHD is caused by excessive sugar intake in childhood
D ADHD has no neurobiological basis and is a behavioural construct only

Correct. ADHD has high heritability (approximately 70-80% in twin studies). Neurobiological research implicates dysregulation of dopaminergic (and noradrenergic) pathways in the prefrontal cortex and striatum — consistent with the mechanism of action of methylphenidate (dopamine/norepinephrine reuptake inhibition).

ADHD aetiology: genetic (heritability ~70-80%, multiple gene variants — DRD4, DAT1), neurobiological (frontostriatal dopamine/noradrenaline dysregulation), neuroimaging (smaller prefrontal cortex, caudate). Environmental factors (prenatal smoking, lead exposure) contribute modestly.

ADHD is a neurodevelopmental disorder with strong genetic (heritability ~70-80%) and neurobiological (dopaminergic/noradrenergic) basis. Parenting style, diet, and screen time may influence symptom severity but do not cause ADHD.

Click to reveal answer

Q5 PS11.1 1 pt

A 10-year-old boy has a full-scale IQ of 72 on standardised testing. His adaptive functioning assessment shows age-appropriate self-care, satisfactory peer relationships, and ability to manage money for daily purchases. He struggles mildly with reading but attends mainstream school with minimal support. Which is the most appropriate diagnosis?

A Mild Intellectual Disability Disorder
B Borderline Intellectual Functioning
C No diagnosis of IDD — adaptive functioning is not significantly impaired
D Moderate Intellectual Disability Disorder

Correct. DSM-5 requires BOTH intellectual deficits AND significant adaptive functioning deficits for IDD. This boy's IQ is 72 (borderline range, not below the ~70 threshold), and adaptive functioning is essentially preserved. He does not meet criteria for IDD. The correct approach is to grade IDD only when adaptive deficits co-occur with intellectual deficits.

Borderline Intellectual Functioning (IQ 71-84) is a DSM-5 V-code, not a disorder. Adaptive functioning assessment is mandatory — preserved adaptive functioning with a low-normal IQ does not qualify for IDD. Severity in IDD is graded by adaptive function, not IQ.

IDD requires concurrent intellectual deficits (IQ ~≤70) AND significant adaptive functioning deficits. This boy's IQ is 72 (borderline, above typical IDD threshold) and his adaptive functioning is preserved. Neither criterion is met. DSM-5 never bases severity on IQ alone.

Click to reveal answer

Q6 PS11.1 1 pt

A 15-year-old boy with known moderate IDD becomes increasingly aggressive and starts self-injuring. His behaviour team wants to use pharmacotherapy. Which of the following is the most appropriate statement about pharmacotherapy in IDD?

A Medications should never be used in IDD as they worsen intellectual functioning
B Pharmacotherapy may target comorbid psychiatric conditions (aggression, ADHD, depression) but does not reverse IDD
C Haloperidol should be started immediately as it improves IQ in IDD
D Stimulants are the first-line drug for aggression in IDD

Correct. In IDD, pharmacotherapy is targeted at specific comorbid psychiatric disorders or behaviours (e.g., risperidone or aripiprazole for severe aggression/self-injury; methylphenidate for comorbid ADHD; SSRIs for comorbid OCD or depression). No drug reverses the underlying intellectual disability.

IDD pharmacotherapy principles: (1) treat specific comorbidities (ADHD → stimulants; severe aggression/SIB → atypical antipsychotics; depression → SSRIs; epilepsy → anticonvulsants); (2) start low, go slow; (3) regularly review and attempt tapering; (4) never use polypharmacy as default.

Pharmacotherapy in IDD is symptom/comorbidity-targeted — not curative. Atypical antipsychotics (risperidone, aripiprazole) are used for severe aggression or self-injurious behaviour. Stimulants may help comorbid ADHD. No drug improves intellectual functioning.

Click to reveal answer

Q7 PS11.1 1 pt

Which of the following is the most common single-gene cause of Intellectual Disability Disorder in males?

A Down syndrome (Trisomy 21)
B Fragile X syndrome
C Phenylketonuria
D Prader-Willi syndrome

Correct. Fragile X syndrome is the most common single-gene (monogenic) cause of intellectual disability in males. It is caused by a CGG trinucleotide repeat expansion in the FMR1 gene on the X chromosome (>200 repeats = full mutation, methylation of FMR1 → loss of FMRP). Down syndrome (Trisomy 21) is the most common chromosomal cause overall.

IDD aetiology hierarchy: (1) Most common chromosomal cause overall = Down syndrome (Trisomy 21); (2) Most common single-gene/inherited cause = Fragile X syndrome (FMR1 CGG repeat expansion, X-linked). Clinical features of Fragile X: macro-orchidism, large ears, long face, hyperactivity, autistic features, variable IDD (mild to severe).

Down syndrome (Trisomy 21) is the most common chromosomal cause of IDD overall. Fragile X syndrome is the most common SINGLE-GENE cause and the most common inherited cause of IDD, predominantly affecting males.

Click to reveal answer

Q8 PS10.1 1 pt

A 7-year-old boy is evaluated for concerns about repetitive hand flapping, poor eye contact since infancy, and lack of pretend play. He has no speech at all. His parents report he engages in prolonged head-banging when his routine is disrupted. Psychometric testing reveals an IQ of 35. According to DSM-5, which specifiers should be applied to his ASD diagnosis?

A ASD without intellectual impairment, without language impairment
B ASD with intellectual impairment, with language impairment
C ASD is not diagnosed when intellectual disability is present
D ASD, level 1 support needs, without intellectual impairment

Correct. DSM-5 requires specifiers for ASD: presence or absence of intellectual impairment AND presence or absence of language impairment. This boy has IQ 35 (moderate to severe IDD) and no speech (language impairment). Both specifiers apply. DSM-5 also assigns severity levels (1-3) based on support needs in each domain.

DSM-5 ASD requires specifiers: (1) with/without intellectual impairment (IQ ≤70 = impaired), (2) with/without accompanying language impairment (no functional speech/phrase speech = impaired), (3) associated with a known medical/genetic condition or environmental factor, (4) associated with another neurodevelopmental/mental/behavioural disorder, (5) with catatonia.

DSM-5 ASD specifiers include: presence/absence of intellectual impairment (IQ ~≤70 = impairment present), presence/absence of language impairment (no functional speech = impairment present). Both apply in this case. ASD and IDD can be co-diagnosed.

Click to reveal answer

Q9 PS11.1 1 pt

A paediatrician screens all newborns with a blood spot test at 48 hours of age. A baby tests positive for elevated phenylalanine levels. The family is counselled about long-term risks if untreated. Which intellectual disability-related outcome is being prevented?

A Down syndrome due to early chromosomal non-disjunction
B Intellectual disability due to phenylketonuria (PKU)
C Intellectual disability due to Fragile X syndrome
D Intellectual disability due to congenital rubella

Correct. Neonatal bloodspot screening (Guthrie test) identifies PKU — an autosomal recessive disorder of phenylalanine hydroxylase (PAH). Elevated phenylalanine accumulates and is toxic to the developing brain. Early diagnosis and phenylalanine-restricted diet prevents IDD. This is the model example of preventable IDD through newborn screening.

Prevention of IDD — postnatal: (1) neonatal metabolic screening (PKU, hypothyroidism, galactosaemia); (2) newborn hearing screening; (3) immunisation (measles, Hib, rubella). Antenatal: folic acid (neural tube defects), antenatal screening for Down syndrome, avoidance of teratogens. Primary prevention is the most cost-effective IDD intervention.

The Guthrie neonatal screen detects elevated phenylalanine, indicating PKU (phenylalanine hydroxylase deficiency). Early dietary intervention prevents phenylalanine toxicity to the developing brain and IDD. Down syndrome cannot be prevented by neonatal screening; Fragile X has separate genetic testing; congenital rubella is prevented by maternal immunisation.

Click to reveal answer

Q10 PS10.1 1 pt

A psychiatrist is counselling a family whose son has ADHD. The father believes that medication alone is sufficient treatment. Which statement best represents current evidence-based management?

A Pharmacotherapy alone (methylphenidate) is sufficient if symptoms are well controlled
B Behavioural interventions alone are sufficient; medications should be avoided in school-age children
C Multimodal management combining pharmacotherapy with behavioural/psychosocial interventions and psychoeducation is recommended
D Dietary modification (elimination of sugar and food additives) is first-line and pharmacotherapy should be reserved for severe cases only

Correct. Evidence-based ADHD management is multimodal: stimulant medication (methylphenidate first-line), combined with behaviour therapy, psychoeducation for family and school, academic accommodations, and social skills training. The MTA study (NIMH Multimodal Treatment Study) showed combined treatment was superior to either medication or behavioural intervention alone for most outcomes.

ADHD multimodal management: (1) Pharmacotherapy — methylphenidate first-line (stimulant); atomoxetine (non-stimulant) second-line; (2) Behaviour therapy — parent training, classroom behavioural strategies; (3) Psychoeducation — family, teachers, child (age-appropriate); (4) Academic accommodations — extended time, preferential seating; (5) Social skills training.

ADHD management is multimodal — medication is effective but insufficient alone. The combination of pharmacotherapy, behavioural strategies, psychoeducation, and school accommodations produces the best outcomes (MTA study evidence). Dietary changes have limited evidence and are not first-line.

Click to reveal answer