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PA1.1-3,PA2.1-8 | Cell Injury, Adaptation & Cell Death — Graded Quiz
Graded
12 questions · Untimed · 2 attempts
Click any question card to reveal the correct answer.
A 62-year-old man with a 3-day history of central chest pain is brought to the emergency department. ECG shows ST-elevation in leads V1–V4. Troponin I is markedly elevated. He is taken for primary PCI, which successfully restores coronary flow. Two hours post-reperfusion, echocardiography shows a new zone of akinesia larger than predicted by the occluded territory alone. Which mechanism BEST explains the zone of additional injury after reperfusion?
A
Continued ATP depletion due to residual mitochondrial dysfunction
B
Massive influx of calcium and burst of reactive oxygen species from xanthine oxidase converting to the oxidase form during ischaemia
✓
C
Excess release of histamine and bradykinin from activated mast cells at the infarct border
D
Karyolysis of nuclei in cardiomyocytes, releasing DNAse that damages adjacent viable cells
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A 19-year-old woman is prescribed isoniazid and rifampicin for pulmonary tuberculosis. After 6 weeks she develops jaundice. Liver biopsy shows ballooning degeneration of centrilobular hepatocytes with large, clear cytoplasmic vacuoles that displace nuclei peripherally on H&E. Oil Red O staining on a frozen section is strongly positive. Which cellular adaptation or accumulation does this pattern represent, and what is the primary pathological mechanism here?
A
Hydropic swelling due to Na⁺/K⁺-ATPase failure from drug-induced ATP depletion
B
Macrovesicular steatosis due to impaired mitochondrial beta-oxidation and reduced VLDL export caused by drug-induced hepatotoxicity
✓
C
Glycogen accumulation due to impaired glycogenolysis secondary to isoniazid's pyridoxine depletion
D
Protein accumulation (Mallory-Denk bodies) representing keratin intermediate filament aggregation from oxidative injury
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A 55-year-old smoker with COPD undergoes bronchoscopic biopsy of the left main bronchus after a CT scan shows mucosal thickening. Histology reveals replacement of the normal pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium by stratified squamous epithelium. There is no nuclear pleomorphism, and the basement membrane is intact. Which statement BEST explains the clinical significance of this finding?
A
This represents irreversible metaplasia that must be resected immediately as it has become squamous cell carcinoma
B
This is squamous metaplasia — a reversible adaptation to chronic irritation; cessation of smoking may allow reversion, but it carries increased cancer risk if the stimulus persists
✓
C
This is dysplasia — abnormal nuclear-to-cytoplasmic ratios and loss of polarity confirm pre-malignant change
D
This represents hyperplasia — an increase in the number of ciliated cells in response to smoke-induced mucosal trauma
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A 78-year-old woman with advanced renal cell carcinoma is found at autopsy to have calcium deposits in the walls of medium-sized arteries throughout the body and in the myocardium. Serum calcium pre-mortem was 3.8 mmol/L and phosphate was 2.1 mmol/L. The arterial walls are otherwise intact on H&E without necrosis. Which type of pathological calcification does this represent, and what is the MOST likely mechanism?
A
Dystrophic calcification due to local tissue injury causing calcium influx into necrotic arterial cells
B
Metastatic calcification due to hypercalcaemia from PTH-related peptide secreted by the tumour driving calcium deposition in normal tissues
✓
C
Psammoma body formation — concentric laminated calcification pathognomonic of renal cell carcinoma metastases
D
Dystrophic calcification due to secondary hyperparathyroidism, which raises local calcium concentrations in arterial walls
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During an autopsy on a 66-year-old woman who died of sepsis, a pathologist removes a section of liver. Microscopically, hepatocytes show pyknosis of nuclei, dense eosinophilic cytoplasm, and loss of normal cellular architecture, while the overall tissue framework (reticulin scaffold) is preserved. Which of the following CORRECTLY identifies the necrosis pattern and explains why the reticulin scaffold is intact?
A
Liquefactive necrosis; enzyme-mediated digestion spares the collagen framework
B
Coagulative necrosis; protein denaturation preserves the ghost outlines of cell shape and the connective tissue scaffold despite nuclear death
✓
C
Caseous necrosis; the mycobacterial cell wall lipids inhibit lysosomal enzymes protecting the reticulin
D
Fat necrosis; saponification of hepatic lipids leaves behind a calcium-soap skeleton
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A 42-year-old woman with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is treated with high-dose corticosteroids for a flare. Over 18 months, repeat ultrasound shows bilateral adrenal cortical thinning to 30% of normal volume. A biopsy shows markedly reduced cell size with increased autophagic vacuoles. Electron microscopy reveals loss of smooth endoplasmic reticulum and mitochondria. Which adaptive mechanism BEST explains the adrenal cortical thinning?
A
Apoptosis of adrenocortical cells triggered by the direct cytotoxic effect of corticosteroids binding to intracellular receptors
B
Disuse atrophy — exogenous corticosteroids suppress ACTH via negative feedback, reducing trophic stimulation to the adrenal cortex and activating ubiquitin-proteasome and autophagic degradation
✓
C
Metaplasia — adrenocortical cells transform into fibroblasts in response to chronic corticosteroid exposure
D
Hyperplasia suppression — corticosteroids block mitosis of zona fasciculata cells, reducing cell number without affecting cell size
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A pathologist receives a liver biopsy from a 49-year-old woman with suspected Wilson disease. H&E shows hepatocyte nuclei with glycogenated (pale, vacuolated) centres and occasional Mallory-Denk bodies. Rhodanine stain is positive (copper accumulation). A second biopsy from a 55-year-old non-alcoholic woman with non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH) shows similar Mallory-Denk bodies but no copper. Which statement BEST explains why Mallory-Denk bodies appear in both conditions?
A
Both conditions cause hepatic steatosis, and intracellular fat droplets condense into eosinophilic inclusions when cells are fixed in formalin
B
Both conditions generate oxidative stress that ubiquitinates and aggregates keratin intermediate filaments (CK8/CK18) into cytoplasmic inclusions
✓
C
Both conditions cause apoptosis via the intrinsic pathway, and apoptotic bodies are misidentified as Mallory-Denk bodies on routine H&E
D
Copper in Wilson disease and lipotoxic metabolites in NASH both crosslink plasma membrane glycoproteins, depositing them intracellularly as Mallory-Denk bodies
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A 25-year-old medical student studies a slide showing cells with condensed, deeply basophilic, crescentic nuclear fragments at the cell periphery, cell shrinkage, and dense eosinophilic cytoplasm. No surrounding inflammatory cells are visible. Which cell death mode is depicted, and which molecular event INITIATES this process via the intrinsic pathway?
A
Necrosis; loss of Na⁺/K⁺-ATPase function causes cell swelling and nuclear karyorrhexis
B
Apoptosis; mitochondrial outer membrane permeabilisation (MOMP) releases cytochrome c, forming the apoptosome and activating initiator caspase-9
✓
C
Necroptosis; RIPK1/RIPK3 complex formation triggers MLKL-mediated membrane rupture with subsequent nuclear condensation
D
Apoptosis; FasL binding to Fas receptor recruits FADD and activates caspase-8 as the first initiator
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A 72-year-old woman with a long history of poorly controlled type 2 diabetes has an HbA1c of 11.2%. She undergoes a renal biopsy that shows marked thickening of tubular basement membranes, glomerulosclerosis, and tubular atrophy with fibrosis. Electron microscopy shows shortened telomeres in tubular epithelial cells. Which mechanism of cellular aging MOST directly explains the tubular atrophy seen in this patient's kidneys?
A
Advanced glycation end-products crosslink intracellular DNA, activating ATM kinase and causing permanent G1 arrest via p53-p21 signalling
B
Chronic hyperglycaemia-driven oxidative stress causes cumulative mitochondrial DNA damage, accelerating replicative senescence through telomere shortening beyond the Hayflick limit
✓
C
Insulin resistance causes preferential use of anaerobic glycolysis, leading to lactate accumulation and intracellular acidosis that inhibits DNA replication
D
Reduced IGF-1 signalling in diabetes impairs the PI3K/Akt survival pathway, causing constitutive activation of the intrinsic apoptosis pathway in tubular cells
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A 50-year-old male smoker with a 30-pack-year history presents with haemoptysis and weight loss. Bronchoscopic biopsy of a right upper lobe mass shows stratified squamous epithelium with evidence of invasion through the basement membrane and into the bronchial cartilage. A second biopsy from a 45-year-old woman with only cervical mucus metaplasia (non-invasive squamous change, intact basement membrane) is also submitted. A histopathology student correctly identifies the DIFFERENCE between the two biopsies. Which SINGLE feature is MOST critical?
A
Nuclear-to-cytoplasmic ratio — the squamous carcinoma cells have a higher N:C ratio than the metaplastic cells
B
Basement membrane integrity — the carcinoma has breached the basement membrane allowing invasion, while the metaplastic lesion has an intact basement membrane
✓
C
Number of mitoses — the carcinoma shows more mitoses per high-power field than the metaplastic lesion
D
Cell type — squamous cells are inherently malignant and columnar cells are benign, so cell type alone determines the diagnosis
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A 38-year-old woman with a known BRCA1 mutation undergoes prophylactic mastectomy. The pathologist notices lobules with cells that appear smaller than normal, with decreased cytoplasm and inactive-appearing nuclei. There is no increase in fibrous stroma. Biochemically, these cells show increased activity of the ubiquitin-proteasome system and LC3-II positivity on Western blot (a marker of autophagy). Which adaptive change is occurring in these lobular cells?
A
Physiologic apoptosis — the cells are undergoing programmed death in preparation for post-lactational involution
B
Atrophy — reduced hormonal or trophic stimulation has activated ubiquitin-proteasome and autophagy pathways to reduce cell size and organelle content
✓
C
Hypertrophy — cells are accumulating autophagosomes as a stress response, increasing total cellular volume
D
Dysplasia — the reduced cytoplasm and inactive nuclei represent early pre-malignant dedifferentiation in a BRCA1 carrier
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On histological examination of a post-operative wound excision specimen from a 60-year-old man who had a sigmoid colon resection for carcinoma complicated by wound infection, the following are seen: extensive neutrophil infiltration, areas of liquefaction, and no residual organised stroma in the affected zone. The wound has not healed after 3 weeks. The surgeon asks the pathologist which local factor is MOST responsible for delayed healing. Which answer is MOST correct?
A
Malnutrition — the patient's low serum albumin (28 g/L) reduces collagen synthesis by depriving fibroblasts of substrate amino acids
B
Wound infection — bacteria prolong the inflammatory phase by continually stimulating neutrophil recruitment, destroying granulation tissue, and preventing re-epithelialisation
✓
C
Anaemia — Hb of 9.5 g/dL reduces oxygen delivery to the wound, impairing fibroblast proliferation
D
Corticosteroid use — the patient's post-operative dexamethasone suppresses VEGF and impairs angiogenesis in the wound bed
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